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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Test Your LPN Skills with Our Free Practice Test

Think you can ace our LPN practice quizzes? Dive into lpn practice questions and lpn test questions now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
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Get ready to conquer your Practical Nursing exam with our free lpn practice test, designed to provide a realistic study experience with carefully crafted lpn exam questions and targeted lpn practice questions that mimic the real exam. You'll tackle diverse lpn test questions, enjoy engaging lpn practice quizzes, and receive instant feedback to track your progress. Whether you're prepping solo or studying with a friend, this focused review will boost your readiness and calm your nerves. Ready to level up? Dive into our interactive lpn exam practice test or explore bonus NCLEX PN practice questions . Start now and ace every step toward your LPN success!

What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
12-20 breaths per minute
6-10 breaths per minute
8-14 breaths per minute
20-28 breaths per minute
The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest ranges between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 are considered bradypnea, while rates above 20 are considered tachypnea. Monitoring respiratory rate is essential for assessing a patient's respiratory status and detecting potential issues early. Healthline
Which gauge needle is most appropriate for administering a subcutaneous injection?
30-gauge
23-gauge
25-gauge
21-gauge
Subcutaneous injections typically use a fine-gauge needle, such as 25- to 30-gauge, to minimize tissue trauma and patient discomfort. A 25-gauge needle is commonly used for insulin and other subcutaneous medications. Using the appropriate gauge reduces pain and risk of tissue damage. RegisteredNursing.org
Which cranial nerve controls pupillary constriction in response to light?
Cranial Nerve III
Cranial Nerve II
Cranial Nerve VII
Cranial Nerve V
The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle, controlling pupillary constriction in response to light. Cranial nerve II senses the light stimulus and triggers the reflex arc, while III carries the motor response. Dysfunction in CN III can result in dilated pupil and impaired eye movements. NCBI Bookshelf
What is the preferred site for an intramuscular injection in adults?
Vastus lateralis
Dorsogluteal
Deltoid
Ventrogluteal
The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves and has a thick muscle mass. This reduces the risk of nerve injury, especially to the sciatic nerve. It can be used safely in various patient positions. NCBI Bookshelf
What is the first step in the nursing process?
Assessment
Planning
Implementation
Diagnosis
Assessment is the first step of the nursing process, involving systematic collection of patient data through observation, interview, and examination. Accurate assessment guides the formulation of nursing diagnoses and subsequent planning. A thorough assessment ensures that nursing care is tailored to the patient's needs. NLN
Which value best represents a normal adult blood pressure?
130/85 mm Hg
120/80 mm Hg
140/90 mm Hg
110/70 mm Hg
A normal adult blood pressure is typically around 120/80 mm Hg. Consistently higher readings may indicate hypertension, while significantly lower readings may suggest hypotension. Regular monitoring is crucial for cardiovascular risk assessment. American Heart Association
Which of the following is a classic sign of infection at a wound site?
Scabbing
Dryness
Redness
Bruising
Redness around a wound indicates increased blood flow due to the inflammatory response and is a hallmark of infection. Other infection signs include warmth, swelling, pain, and purulent discharge. Early recognition and treatment prevent further complications. CDC
When documenting patient care, the nurse should always include the date and ____ on each entry.
Corrections
Margin notes
Signature only
Time
Proper documentation requires each entry to include the date and time to maintain accurate chronological records. This practice ensures legal clarity and continuity of care across shifts. Omitting timestamps can lead to confusion in patient care and accountability. Journal of Nursing Regulation
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute for 1,000 mL of fluid to infuse over 8 hours using a 15 gtt/mL set.
38 gtt/min
25 gtt/min
20 gtt/min
31 gtt/min
To calculate IV flow rate: 1,000 mL ÷ 480 minutes = 2.083 mL/min. Then multiply by drop factor: 2.083 x 15 gtt/mL = 31.25 gtt/min, rounded to 31 gtt/min. Accurate calculation ensures safe fluid administration. RegisteredNursing.org
A patient with Cushing's disease is most likely to exhibit which of the following?
Hypotension
Weight loss
Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Cushing's disease results from chronic cortisol excess, which increases gluconeogenesis, causing hyperglycemia. Patients also often present with hypertension, weight gain, and characteristic fat redistribution. Recognizing hyperglycemia aids in early diagnosis. EndocrineWeb
What is the correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves
Mask, Gown, Gloves, Goggles
Mask, Goggles, Gown, Gloves
Gown, Gloves, Mask, Goggles
The recommended order is gown first, then mask or respirator, followed by eye protection, and lastly gloves. This sequence ensures each item is donned without contaminating previously applied equipment. Proper technique reduces risk of self-contamination. CDC
An ABG shows pH 7.25, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 - 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base disturbance is present?
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
A low pH indicates acidemia, and the elevated PaCO2 suggests CO2 retention as the primary cause, confirming respiratory acidosis. Normal HCO3 - indicates no primary metabolic disturbance. Treatment focuses on improving ventilation. NCBI Bookshelf
A medication order reads 200 mg in 5 mL. How many milliliters deliver a 100 mg dose?
10.0 mL
2.5 mL
5.0 mL
1.0 mL
Use the ratio method: (100 mg ÷ 200 mg) × 5 mL = 2.5 mL. Precise calculations are critical to ensure safe dosing. Always double-check your work. ISMP
Which symptom is most characteristic of hypokalemia?
Peaked T waves
Muscle weakness
Polyuria
Hyperreflexia
Hypokalemia typically presents with muscle weakness and cramps due to impaired muscle cell excitability. In contrast, hyperkalemia causes peaked T waves on ECG. Early recognition prevents severe complications like arrhythmias. NCBI Bookshelf
Which scale is commonly used to assess a patient's risk for pressure ulcer development?
Braden Scale
Waterlow Scale
Norton Scale
Glasgow Coma Scale
The Braden Scale evaluates sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear to assess risk for pressure ulcer development. Scores guide preventive interventions. It is the most widely used tool in clinical settings. NPUAP
When teaching a patient to use an incentive spirometer, the nurse should instruct the patient to:
Inhale slowly and deeply
Breathe normally through the nose
Exhale quickly and forcefully
Hold breath for 2 seconds and exhale
Patients should inhale slowly and deeply into the device to maximize lung expansion and prevent atelectasis. Holding the breath briefly at maximal inspiration enhances alveolar recruitment. Correct technique improves postoperative outcomes. AHRQ
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is likely to have which serum electrolyte finding on admission?
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
In DKA, insulin deficiency and acidosis cause a shift of potassium out of cells, resulting in hyperkalemia despite total body potassium depletion. Monitoring and carefully replacing potassium during treatment is vital. NCBI Bookshelf
Before administering a blood transfusion, the nurse's highest priority action is to:
Administer the blood over 4 hours
Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
Prime the line with D5W
Verify type and crossmatch with another nurse at bedside
A dual verification of patient identity, blood type, and crossmatch with another licensed practitioner at the bedside is required to prevent hemolytic transfusion reactions. This safety check is the nurse's highest priority. CDC
Which IV solution is appropriate for slowly correcting hypernatremia?
0.45% Sodium Chloride
3% Sodium Chloride
0.9% Sodium Chloride
5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
Hypotonic solutions such as 0.45% NaCl help shift water into cells, lowering serum sodium gently. Isotonic saline maintains sodium levels, while hypertonic solutions can worsen hypernatremia. Slow correction prevents cerebral edema. UpToDate
Early signs of digoxin toxicity include:
Hypertension and diplopia
Bradycardia and visual halos
Hypotension and hyperkalemia
Tachycardia and polyuria
Digoxin toxicity often presents with GI symptoms, bradycardia, and visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos around lights. Regular monitoring of levels and electrolytes is essential to prevent serious arrhythmias. NCBI Bookshelf
Which intervention best prevents skin breakdown in an incontinent patient?
Keep skin clean and dry with barrier cream
Use hot water for cleansing
Reposition every hour
Increase room humidity
Incontinence-associated dermatitis is prevented by keeping skin clean and dry and applying a moisture barrier cream to protect against irritants. Frequent cleansing and timely care reduce risk of breakdown. Wounds International
In the initial management of a patient in hypovolemic shock, the nurse's highest priority is to:
Elevate the patient's legs
Administer oxygen
Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes
Start a second IV line
Following ABCs, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the first priority in shock to improve tissue perfusion. Oxygen therapy is initiated before fluid resuscitation and other interventions. NCBI Bookshelf
To reduce elevated intracranial pressure, the patient's head should be positioned:
Supine with head turned to the side
Trendelenburg position
Elevated 30° with head midline
Flat with neck flexed
Elevating the head of the bed to about 30° with the head in a neutral, midline position promotes venous drainage from the brain and helps lower intracranial pressure. Positions that flex or rotate the neck can impede venous outflow. CCJM
A 75-year-old patient on furosemide 40 mg daily has a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse's best action?
Withhold the dose and notify the provider
Check blood pressure immediately
Continue the medication as ordered
Increase intake of bananas and orange juice
Furosemide can cause significant potassium loss. A serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and raises risk for cardiac arrhythmias. Holding the dose and notifying the provider is essential to address electrolyte imbalance. Mayo Clinic
A total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution contains 20% dextrose in 1,500 mL, 80 g of protein, and 40 g of lipids. How many total kilocalories does this solution provide?
1,700 kcal
1,800 kcal
2,000 kcal
1,500 kcal
Dextrose provides 3.4 kcal/g: 20% of 1,500 mL equals 300 g or 1,020 kcal. Protein yields 4 kcal/g: 80 g × 4 = 320 kcal. Lipids yield 9 kcal/g: 40 g × 9 = 360 kcal. Total is 1,700 kcal. Accurate TPN calculations are vital for patient nutrition. NCBI Bookshelf
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand LPN Practice Test Structure -

    Gain familiarity with the format and types of lpn test questions you'll encounter, helping you navigate the scored quiz confidently.

  2. Apply Core Nursing Principles -

    Demonstrate your understanding of medication administration, patient safety, and care protocols through realistic lpn practice questions.

  3. Analyze Patient Assessment Scenarios -

    Develop your critical thinking by working through lpn exam questions that challenge you to interpret vital signs, assess conditions, and prioritize care.

  4. Identify Knowledge Gaps -

    Use instant feedback from each lpn practice quiz question to pinpoint areas for further study and reinforce your strengths.

  5. Build Test-Taking Confidence -

    Enhance your readiness for the practical nursing exam with a supportive, practice-driven approach that reduces anxiety and boosts performance.

  6. Review and Reinforce Key Concepts -

    Consolidate essential lpn practice test content through targeted questions that solidify your grasp of nursing fundamentals.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Medication Calculation and Dosage Accuracy -

    In lpn practice test scenarios, mastering the formula (Desired Dose ÷ Available Dose × Volume) ensures you deliver the correct dose every time. For example, calculate 500 mg ÷ 250 mg × 5 mL = 10 mL. Use the mnemonic "King Henry Died Monday Drinking Chocolate Milk" to convert units (kilo, hecto, deca, base, deci, centi, milli) with confidence (source: NCSBN).

  2. Vital Sign Assessment and Interpretation -

    Accurately measuring and interpreting vital signs (temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, SpO₂) is fundamental in lpn practice quizzes to spot deviations early. For instance, recognizing a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute signals potential distress requiring prompt action. Adhere to American Heart Association and CDC guidelines, and practice hearing Korotkoff sounds to refine your blood pressure readings (source: AHA).

  3. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Sequence -

    Use the IPPA mnemonic - Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation - during each lpn practice question on patient assessment to maintain a systematic approach. For example, auscultate lung fields in a zigzag pattern (anterior to posterior) to detect adventitious sounds. Refer to evidence-based protocols from university nursing departments to build a thorough, reproducible routine (source: Johns Hopkins University).

  4. Infection Control and Aseptic Technique -

    Understanding standard precautions and sterile technique is key to many lpn exam questions on infection prevention. Remember the WHO's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene" and practice donning and doffing gloves, gowns, and masks in the correct sequence. Regularly review CDC guidelines on isolation categories to confidently answer scenario-based queries (source: CDC).

  5. Documentation and SBAR Communication -

    Clear, concise charting and handoff using the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) format boosts patient safety and performance on lpn test questions. For example, "S: Post-op fever 101°F; B: 24 hours post-appendectomy; A: WBC elevated; R: Request antibiotic order." Practice crafting SBAR notes in lpn practice quizzes to streamline your reporting (source: Joint Commission).

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