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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Master Your Skills with This Free NCLEX RN Practice Quiz

Jump into our free RN practice test and boost your nursing exam confidence

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art nurse holding clipboard and pencil with checkmark on blue background for free scored NCLEX RN practice quiz

Ready to boost your confidence before the big day? Our NCLEX RN Practice Quiz offers a free 20-question nursing exam designed to sharpen your skills and reinforce key concepts. Whether you're looking for targeted NCLEX practice questions or a quick RN practice test, this free RN practice quiz delivers instant feedback and detailed rationales so you can identify strengths and tackle areas for improvement. Explore a selection of NCLEX RN practice questions and dive into a comprehensive NCLEX practice exam to simulate real test conditions. These nursing exam practice tools and NCLEX test prep tips are perfect for fireproofing your readiness. Don't wait - challenge yourself now and take the first step toward passing your NCLEX!

What is considered a normal adult blood pressure reading?
120/80 mmHg
140/90 mmHg
100/60 mmHg
200/100 mmHg
A normal adult blood pressure is defined by a systolic reading below 120 mmHg and a diastolic reading below 80 mmHg. Maintaining this range ensures adequate perfusion to vital organs without causing vessel damage. Readings consistently above 130/80 mmHg are classified as hypertension. Reference
Which site is recommended for an intramuscular injection in an adult?
Ventrogluteal site
Dorsogluteal site
Deltoid site
Vastus lateralis site
The ventrogluteal site is preferred for adult IM injections because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves and has a thick muscle mass. This reduces the risk of injury and ensures better drug absorption. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to proximity to the sciatic nerve. Reference
What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
12–20 breaths per minute
8–12 breaths per minute
20–30 breaths per minute
30–40 breaths per minute
Normal adult respiratory rate ranges from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 may indicate hypoventilation, while rates above 20 can signify respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis. Accurate assessment of respiratory rate is crucial for evaluating a patient’s ventilatory status. Reference
Before administering medications, what should the nurse do first?
Verify patient identity using two identifiers
Review the MAR without checking identifiers
Ask the patient’s room number
Verify the ordering physician’s signature
The first action is to verify the patient’s identity using two identifiers (such as name and date of birth) to ensure the correct patient receives the correct medication. This step is a key safety measure to prevent medication errors. It must be done before checking the medication administration record. Reference
Which IV catheter gauge is recommended for administering a blood transfusion?
18 gauge
22 gauge
24 gauge
16 gauge
An 18-gauge IV catheter is recommended for blood transfusions to allow for adequate flow and reduce hemolysis. Smaller gauges may hemolyze red blood cells or slow the transfusion. Larger gauges, like 16, are unnecessary for routine transfusion. Reference
What type of solution is 0.9% sodium chloride?
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Crystalloid
A 0.9% sodium chloride solution is isotonic, meaning it has the same osmolarity as plasma, which prevents fluid shifts between compartments. It is commonly used for fluid resuscitation. Hypertonic or hypotonic solutions would draw fluid into or out of cells, respectively. Reference
What is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings?
Performing hand hygiene
Wearing a mask
Using gloves
Wearing a gown
Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent transmission of pathogens in healthcare settings. It reduces the risk of healthcare-associated infections significantly. Other protective equipment is important but secondary to hand washing or alcohol-based hand rubs. Reference
What is the normal arterial blood pH range for an adult?
7.35–7.45
7.25–7.35
7.45–7.55
7.15–7.25
The normal arterial blood pH range is 7.35 to 7.45, which reflects a balance between acid and base in the blood. Values below 7.35 indicate acidosis; values above 7.45 indicate alkalosis. Maintaining this range is vital for enzymatic and cellular function. Reference
Which finding most strongly suggests digoxin toxicity?
Yellow-green halos around lights
Increased appetite
Polyuria
Hypotension
Visual disturbances like yellow-green halos are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other early symptoms include nausea and bradycardia. Regular monitoring and patient education help prevent serious toxicity. Reference
When should the Tdap vaccine be administered to a pregnant client?
Between 27 and 36 weeks' gestation
During the first trimester
Immediately postpartum
Between 13 and 20 weeks' gestation
The CDC recommends giving the Tdap vaccine between 27 and 36 weeks of each pregnancy to maximize transfer of protective antibodies to the fetus. Vaccination earlier or postpartum does not provide the same level of neonatal passive immunity. Reference
Which assessment finding indicates fluid volume deficit?
Decreased skin turgor
Pedal edema
Bounding pulses
Jugular vein distention
Decreased skin turgor reflects reduced fluid volume in the interstitial space and is a key sign of dehydration. Edema, bounding pulses, and jugular vein distention indicate fluid overload. Accurate volume assessment guides appropriate fluid management. Reference
What instruction should the nurse give a client using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump?
Only the patient should press the button for a dose
A family member may press the button when you sleep
Press only when pain is severe
Ensure a continuous basal infusion for all patients
To prevent overdose, only the patient should be allowed to press the PCA button (the ‘lock?out’ feature will prevent overdosing). Family members or caregivers should not administer doses. Proper teaching improves pain control and safety. Reference
What is the nurse’s first action when a client’s room catches fire?
Remove the client from immediate danger
Activate the fire alarm
Attempt to extinguish the fire
Secure oxygen sources
RACE is the standard fire response: Rescue any clients in immediate danger first, then Alert/Alarm, contain the fire, and extinguish. Removing the client ensures safety before other steps. Reference
How would you classify these ABG results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3– 24 mEq/L?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
An elevated PaCO2 with a low pH indicates respiratory acidosis. The bicarbonate is normal, showing an acute or uncompensated process. Identifying the primary disturbance guides treatment. Reference
A lab result shows potassium 5.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
Administer IV insulin with dextrose
Give furosemide
Administer calcium gluconate
Infuse sodium bicarbonate
IV insulin with dextrose shifts potassium into cells quickly, reducing serum levels. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the heart but does not lower K+. Furosemide and bicarbonate are secondary measures. Rapid intervention prevents cardiac arrhythmias. Reference
Which task is appropriate to delegate to a certified nursing assistant (CNA)?
Assist the client with bathing and hygiene
Administer oral medications
Perform sterile wound dressing changes
Assess lung sounds
CNAs can safely assist with activities of daily living such as bathing and hygiene. Medication administration, sterile procedures, and assessments require licensed nursing judgment. Proper delegation optimizes team efficiency. Reference
Which laboratory test should be monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of unfractionated heparin?
aPTT
PT
INR
Platelet count
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy and ensure it remains within the therapeutic range. PT and INR assess warfarin effect; platelet counts monitor for heparin?induced thrombocytopenia. Reference
Using the Parkland formula, how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours to a 70 kg adult with 30% TBSA burns? (Formula: 4 mL × body weight (kg) × % TBSA burned)
4200 mL
2100 mL
8400 mL
5600 mL
The Parkland formula calculates 4 mL × 70 kg × 30% = 8400 mL total in 24 hours; half (4200 mL) is given in the first 8 hours post?injury. The remaining half is administered over the next 16 hours. Accurate timing is critical to avoid under- or over-resuscitation. Reference
A newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which clinical finding is expected?
High-pitched, continuous crying
Lethargy
Hypothermia
Bradycardia
Neonatal abstinence syndrome often presents with irritability and a high-pitched cry as the infant withdraws from opioids. Other findings include tremors, feeding difficulties, and hypertonia. Early recognition and scoring guide treatment. Reference
Which food should be avoided by a client with an ileostomy to prevent obstruction?
Popcorn
White rice
Bananas
Cheese
Popcorn and other high?fiber, hull?forming foods can cause blockage at the stoma site. Clients with an ileostomy are advised to avoid such foods or chew them thoroughly. White rice, bananas, and cheese are generally well tolerated. Reference
Which manifestation is characteristic of Addison’s disease?
Hyperpigmented skin
Weight gain
Hypertension
Hyperglycemia
Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) often causes hyperpigmentation due to elevated ACTH stimulating melanocytes. Other findings include hypotension, weight loss, and hyponatremia. Recognizing these signs allows for timely hormone replacement. Reference
A client is on droplet precautions. Which personal protective equipment should the nurse wear on entry?
Surgical mask
N95 respirator
Negative-pressure respirator
Gloves only
Droplet precautions require the use of a surgical mask when within three feet of the client to prevent transmission of large respiratory droplets. An N95 is used for airborne precautions. Gloves are worn but masks are primary for droplets. Reference
Which ECG finding indicates ventricular fibrillation?
Chaotic, irregular waves with no identifiable QRS complexes
Sawtooth waves between QRS complexes
Prolonged PR intervals
Regular wide QRS complexes
Ventricular fibrillation appears as chaotic, irregular electrical activity with no distinct P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves, leading to no cardiac output. Immediate defibrillation is required. Sawtooth waves suggest atrial flutter. Reference
What is a common side effect of nitroglycerin therapy?
Headache
Hyperglycemia
Constipation
Bradycardia
Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation of cerebral vessels, often resulting in headaches. It may also cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia, but headache is most common. Educating clients about this side effect improves adherence. Reference
Interpret this ABG: pH 7.50, PaCO2 46 mmHg, HCO3– 36 mEq/L.
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
An elevated pH with normal PaCO2 and increased bicarbonate indicates primary metabolic alkalosis without respiratory compensation. The lungs are not retaining CO2. Identifying the correct disorder directs appropriate therapy. Reference
A heparin drip orders 20,000 units in 500 mL, to infuse at 800 units/hr. What is the correct infusion rate in mL/hr?
20 mL/hr
10 mL/hr
40 mL/hr
25 mL/hr
To determine mL/hr: (800 units/hr ÷ 20,000 units) × 500 mL = 20 mL/hr. Accurate calculation ensures therapeutic anticoagulation and patient safety. Reference
Which adverse effect is most associated with calcium channel blocker therapy?
Peripheral edema
Bronchospasm
Thrombocytopenia
Hyperthermia
Calcium channel blockers can cause peripheral edema due to precapillary arteriolar vasodilation. They do not typically cause bronchospasm, thrombocytopenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for edema helps manage this side effect. Reference
In ARDS management, which ventilator setting helps prevent alveolar collapse and improve oxygenation?
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
Increased tidal volume
Reduced FiO2
Lower respiratory rate
PEEP maintains alveoli in an open state at end expiration, improving oxygenation and preventing atelectasis in ARDS. Increasing tidal volume risks barotrauma. Adjusting FiO2 and rate alone is insufficient. Reference
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Study Outcomes

  1. Interpret NCLEX RN Question Formats -

    Recognize common NCLEX practice question structures and wording to improve accuracy in selecting correct answers during the quiz and actual exam.

  2. Apply Pharmacology Concepts -

    Use fundamental drug classification and mechanism knowledge to answer medication administration questions confidently and correctly.

  3. Implement Patient Safety Protocols -

    Demonstrate understanding of safety and infection control measures by selecting appropriate actions in scenario-based questions.

  4. Analyze Clinical Scenarios -

    Evaluate patient care situations, prioritize nursing interventions, and make informed clinical judgments under timed conditions.

  5. Evaluate Strengths and Weaknesses -

    Review instant feedback to identify knowledge gaps and focus study efforts on areas needing improvement for NCLEX readiness.

  6. Enhance Test-Taking Strategies -

    Develop effective approaches for time management, question analysis, and confidence-building to optimize performance on nursing exam practice.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Dosage Calculations: Dimensional Analysis -

    Master the formula dose = (desired ÷ available) × volume to ensure accuracy in medication administration. Practice using the dimensional analysis method (e.g., mL to mg conversions) on our NCLEX RN Practice Quiz to boost your confidence. A quick unit-alignment check helps avoid calculation errors.

  2. Fundamental Pharmacology & Antidotes -

    Group drugs by mechanism and learn essential antidotes like naloxone for opioids or acetylcysteine for acetaminophen toxicity. Use the SLUDGE mnemonic (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis) when reviewing NCLEX practice questions on cholinergic effects. Regular flashcard drills reinforce these pharmacology categories.

  3. Normal Lab Values & Interpretation -

    Memorize normal lab ranges - potassium 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L, sodium 135 - 145 mEq/L, hemoglobin 12 - 18 g/dL - and clinical implications. Test your skills with NCLEX test prep tips focused on lab interpretation, such as recognizing hyperkalemia ECG changes. Pattern recognition builds speed and accuracy under exam conditions.

  4. Prioritization Using ABC & Maslow -

    Apply ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and Maslow's hierarchy to prioritize patient care effectively. Work through free RN practice quiz questions that simulate real-world prioritization scenarios to sharpen your clinical judgment. Always address airway problems before ambulation or medication administration.

  5. Infection Control & Safety Protocols -

    Follow standard precautions - 20-second hand hygiene and proper PPE use - to prevent hospital-acquired infections. Recall the WHO's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene" when practicing with RN practice test scenarios. Consistent practice embeds these safety protocols into daily nursing routines.

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