Unlock hundreds more features
Save your Quiz to the Dashboard
View and Export Results
Use AI to Create Quizzes and Analyse Results

Sign inSign in with Facebook
Sign inSign in with Google

Take the Top 200 Drugs Quiz and Prove Your Pharma Skills

Ready for a medication quiz challenge? Test your skills in this drugs quiz now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for drug knowledge quiz on sky blue background

Ready to conquer the Master the Top 200 Drugs Quiz - Test Your Pharma IQ? This engaging, free, scored medication quiz is your ticket to reinforcing top 200 drugs and classifications while you challenge your memory and boost confidence. You'll sharpen your recall of drug classes, mechanisms, and brand-generic pairs, turning study time into an exciting mastery session. Whether you're reviewing for exams or seeking a quick refresher, our ultimate top 200 drug quiz format delivers a comprehensive drugs quiz experience where every question counts. Dive deeper with our pharmacology quiz or spark joy with fun pharmacology trivia . Jump in now, track your score, and ace the challenge!

Which of these drugs is classified as a biguanide used in type 2 diabetes management?
Metformin
Glipizide
Pioglitazone
Sitagliptin
Metformin is the only biguanide among the top 200 drugs and works by decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and increasing insulin sensitivity. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione, and sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor. Biguanides have a distinct mechanism compared to these other drug classes. Learn more about biguanides
Omeprazole reduces gastric acid by irreversibly inhibiting which enzyme?
H+/K+ ATPase
Histamine H2 receptor
Gastrin receptor
Na+/K+ ATPase
Omeprazole and other proton pump inhibitors bind irreversibly to the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme in parietal cells, blocking the final step of acid secretion. H2 blockers target the histamine receptor, not the pump itself. This specific action makes PPIs highly effective for acid-related disorders. Mechanism of proton pump inhibitors
Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?
Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Azithromycin belongs to the macrolide class and inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin, ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and doxycycline is a tetracycline. Macrolides are known for their good tissue penetration and respiratory coverage. Macrolide antibiotics overview
What is the brand name commonly associated with acetaminophen?
Tylenol
Advil
Motrin
Aleve
Tylenol is the most widely recognized brand name for acetaminophen, an analgesic and antipyretic. Advil and Motrin are brand names for ibuprofen, while Aleve is naproxen. Acetaminophen acts centrally to reduce fever and pain without significant anti-inflammatory effects. Acetaminophen use and safety
Which drug is classified as a loop diuretic?
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Spironolactone
Amiloride
Furosemide inhibits the Na-K-2Cl symporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop, classifying it as a loop diuretic. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic acting on aldosterone receptors, and amiloride blocks sodium channels in the collecting duct. Loop diuretics are potent and often used in acute edema. Loop diuretic pharmacology
Aspirin exerts its antiplatelet effect primarily through which mechanism?
Irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor
Phospholipase A2 inhibitor
Lipoxygenase inhibitor
Adenylyl cyclase activator
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) in platelets, reducing thromboxane A2 synthesis and impairing platelet aggregation. It does not inhibit phospholipase A2 or lipoxygenase. Its irreversible action lasts for the lifespan of the platelet, about 7 to 10 days. Aspirin mechanism of action
Which of the following is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?
Lisinopril
Losartan
Amlodipine
Metoprolol
Lisinopril blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by inhibiting ACE. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker. ACE inhibitors are first-line agents for hypertension and heart failure. ACE inhibitors overview
Which drug is a cardioselective ?1-adrenergic receptor antagonist?
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Carvedilol
Prazosin
Metoprolol selectively blocks ?1 receptors in the heart, reducing heart rate and contractility. Propranolol is nonselective, carvedilol also blocks ?1 receptors, and prazosin is an ?1 blocker. Cardioselective beta-blockers are preferred in patients with respiratory comorbidities. Beta-blocker pharmacology
Prazosin exerts its antihypertensive effect by antagonizing which receptor?
Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor
Muscarinic receptor
Prazosin selectively blocks ?1-adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and lowering blood pressure. Beta-1 antagonists affect heart rate and contractility, ?2 antagonists can increase sympathetic tone, and muscarinic blockers affect parasympathetic functions. Alpha-1 blockers in hypertension
To prevent peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid therapy, supplementation with which vitamin is recommended?
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
Folic acid
Niacin
Vitamin C
Isoniazid depletes pyridoxine, leading to peripheral neuropathy; supplementing vitamin B6 prevents this adverse effect. Folic acid is not involved in this pathway, niacin deficiency presents as pellagra, and vitamin C supplementation does not mitigate isoniazid-induced neuropathy. Isoniazid adverse effects
Which statin is most likely to interact significantly with grapefruit juice?
Simvastatin
Pravastatin
Rosuvastatin
Pitavastatin
Simvastatin is extensively metabolized by CYP3A4, which grapefruit juice inhibits, leading to increased drug levels and risk of toxicity. Pravastatin is not significantly metabolized by CYP3A4, and rosuvastatin and pitavastatin have minimal CYP3A4 interactions. Statins and grapefruit interaction
Which beta-blocker is classified as nonselective, affecting both ?1 and ?2 receptors?
Propranolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Nebivolol
Propranolol blocks both ?1 and ?2 receptors, reducing heart rate and bronchial tone. Atenolol and metoprolol preferentially block ?1, and nebivolol is highly ?1-selective. Nonselective beta-blockers can exacerbate asthma. Beta-blocker selectivity
Ondansetron prevents chemotherapy-induced nausea by antagonizing which receptor?
5-HT3 receptor
D2 receptor
H1 receptor
Mu opioid receptor
Ondansetron selectively blocks 5-HT3 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and GI tract, preventing serotonin-mediated nausea. D2 antagonists and H1 antagonists have different antiemetic profiles, and opioids act on pain pathways. 5-HT3 antagonists in nausea
Amiodarone is classified as which class of antiarrhythmic agent?
Class III
Class I
Class II
Class IV
Amiodarone primarily prolongs the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium channels, placing it in Class III. Class I agents block sodium channels, Class II are beta-blockers, and Class IV are calcium channel blockers. Amiodarone has properties of all four classes but is classified most strongly as III. Antiarrhythmic drug classes
Which antithyroid drug inhibits both thyroid peroxidase and peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
Propylthiouracil
Methimazole
Levothyroxine
Lugol’s solution
Propylthiouracil inhibits thyroid peroxidase in the thyroid gland and also blocks 5'-deiodinase in peripheral tissues, reducing T4 to T3 conversion. Methimazole only inhibits peroxidase, levothyroxine is a replacement hormone, and Lugol’s solution provides iodide to temporarily reduce hormone release. Antithyroid pharmacology
Dabigatran exerts its anticoagulant effect by which mechanism?
Direct thrombin inhibitor
Factor Xa inhibitor
Vitamin K antagonist
Heparin cofactor II activator
Dabigatran directly inhibits thrombin (factor IIa), preventing fibrin formation. Factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban target Xa, warfarin antagonizes vitamin K, and no common anticoagulant works by activating heparin cofactor II. Dabigatran provides predictable anticoagulation without routine monitoring. Direct thrombin inhibitors
Buprenorphine’s activity at the ?-opioid receptor is best described as which of the following?
Partial agonist
Full agonist
Competitive antagonist
Inverse agonist
Buprenorphine acts as a partial agonist at ?-opioid receptors, producing analgesia with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression. Full agonists like morphine lack this safety ceiling, while antagonists block receptor activation. Its partial agonist profile is exploited in opioid dependence treatment. Opioid receptor pharmacology
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody targeting which cytokine?
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-?)
Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
Interferon-gamma
Infliximab binds and neutralizes TNF-?, a key proinflammatory cytokine in autoimmune diseases. IL-6 and IL-1 are targeted by other biologics, and interferon-gamma has distinct immune roles. Anti-TNF therapy is central in rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Anti-TNF agents overview
Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with gentamicin therapy?
Ototoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
Pancreatitis
Aplastic anemia
Gentamicin, like other aminoglycosides, can cause dose-dependent ototoxicity by damaging hair cells in the inner ear. It can also cause nephrotoxicity but is less associated with liver injury, pancreatitis, or bone marrow suppression. Monitoring levels helps mitigate these risks. Aminoglycoside toxicity
Which antiarrhythmic agent is most notorious for causing torsades de pointes?
Ibutilide
Metoprolol
Diltiazem
Magnesium sulfate
Ibutilide prolongs the QT interval by enhancing inward sodium current and inhibiting potassium channels, predisposing to torsades de pointes. Metoprolol and diltiazem have minimal QT effects, and magnesium sulfate is actually used to treat torsades. Monitoring ECG is critical with ibutilide. Torsades de pointes and medications
Linezolid can precipitate serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs because it has activity as a:
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Serotonin antagonist
Dopamine agonist
Linezolid exhibits nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibition, which can increase serotonin levels when given with SSRIs, leading to serotonin syndrome. It is not a reuptake inhibitor, antagonist, or dopamine agonist. Caution is advised with serotonergic drugs. Linezolid interactions
Which antiepileptic agent also serves as a mood stabilizer and blocks voltage-gated sodium channels?
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
Lamotrigine
Gabapentin
Carbamazepine stabilizes the inactive state of sodium channels, reducing neuronal excitability, and is used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder. Valproic acid enhances GABA, lamotrigine also affects sodium channels but is less established as a mood stabilizer, and gabapentin works on calcium channels. Carbamazepine pharmacology
Tacrolimus prevents organ transplant rejection by inhibiting which of the following?
Calcineurin
mTOR
Purine synthesis
Interleukin-2 receptor
Tacrolimus binds FKBP-12 and inhibits calcineurin, preventing transcription of IL-2 and T-cell activation. Sirolimus inhibits mTOR, mycophenolate blocks purine synthesis, and basiliximab antagonizes the IL-2 receptor. Calcineurin inhibitors are cornerstone immunosuppressants. Calcineurin inhibitor mechanism
Which antineoplastic agent’s polyglutamated metabolites inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthase?
Methotrexate
5-Fluorouracil
Azathioprine
Cytarabine
Methotrexate is converted intracellularly to polyglutamated forms that potently inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthase, blocking DNA synthesis. 5-Fluorouracil primarily inhibits thymidylate synthase, azathioprine is a purine analog, and cytarabine inhibits DNA polymerase. Polyglutamation prolongs methotrexate’s action. Methotrexate mechanism
Which of the following is a potent CYP450 inducer that accelerates the metabolism of warfarin?
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Rifampin strongly induces CYP3A4 and other isoforms, increasing warfarin clearance and reducing its anticoagulant effect. Isoniazid and ketoconazole are inhibitors of CYP enzymes, and erythromycin is a moderate inhibitor. Adjusting warfarin dose is critical when starting or stopping rifampin. Drug interactions with warfarin
0
{"name":"Which of these drugs is classified as a biguanide used in type 2 diabetes management?", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Which of these drugs is classified as a biguanide used in type 2 diabetes management?, Omeprazole reduces gastric acid by irreversibly inhibiting which enzyme?, Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}

Study Outcomes

  1. Identify Key Drug Names -

    Recall the generic and brand names of the top 200 drugs to build a robust pharmaceutical vocabulary.

  2. Classify Therapeutic Categories -

    Categorize each drug according to its pharmacologic class and mechanism of action for improved drug grouping.

  3. Apply Clinical Indications -

    Determine the primary uses and indications of common medications to enhance clinical decision-making.

  4. Differentiate Dosage Forms and Routes -

    Distinguish between various formulations and administration routes to ensure proper drug delivery.

  5. Evaluate Safety Profiles -

    Assess common adverse effects, contraindications, and monitoring parameters to promote patient safety.

  6. Reinforce Knowledge Through Scoring -

    Use instant quiz feedback to identify knowledge gaps and focus further study on challenging drug classes.

Cheat Sheet

  1. ACE Inhibitors Mnemonic -

    ACE inhibitors all end in "-pril" (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) and block angiotensin”converting enzyme to reduce vasoconstriction and aldosterone release (Goodman & Gilman). Use the phrase "PRIL makes BP chill" to recall both the suffix and the blood pressure effect. This class is first”line in hypertension per JNC 8 guidelines.

  2. β-Blocker Selectivity -

    Differentiate β1”selective blockers (metoprolol, atenolol) from nonselective ones (propranolol) using "A-M for the heart, N-Z affects more" (American College of Cardiology). β1 selectivity guides use in asthma or COPD patients by sparing bronchial β2 receptors. Remember hepatic metabolism affects dosing for lipophilic agents like propranolol.

  3. CYP450 Interactions ("G PACMAN") -

    The FDA endorses the "G PACMAN" mnemonic to recall major CYP450 inhibitors: Grapefruit, Protease inhibitors, Azole antifungals, Cimetidine, Macrolides, Amiodarone, Non”DHP CCBs. Knowing these helps predict drug - drug interactions and adjust doses accordingly. This framework comes from peer”reviewed pharmacology journals to prevent adverse events.

  4. Antibiotic Classification Mnemonic -

    Use "Buy AT 30, CCEL at 50" to categorize protein synthesis inhibitors: Aminoglycosides (30S) and Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin, Erythromycin, Linezolid (50S). Pair with β-lactams and vancomycin under cell wall inhibitors for a clear mental map (IDSA guidelines). This helps streamline antibiotic selection in empiric therapy.

  5. Anticoagulant Monitoring & Reversal -

    Warfarin effects are tracked via PT/INR, while unfractionated heparin uses aPTT per American Heart Association protocols. Remember vitamin K reverses warfarin and protamine sulfate reverses heparin rapidly. Familiarity with DOACs and specific antidotes (e.g., idarucizumab for dabigatran) completes the anticoagulation overview.

Powered by: Quiz Maker