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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Are You Ready to Ace Your EMT Module 1 Exam?

Ready for EMT Test 1? Start the EMT Module Quiz Now!

Editorial: Review CompletedCreated By: Rachel CarranzaUpdated Aug 23, 2025
Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for EMT Module 1 exam quiz on coral background

This free EMT Module 1 exam quiz helps you practice patient assessment, airway care, vitals, and scene safety with realistic, timed questions. You'll see where you're strong, find gaps to review before the exam, and grow confident for field work.

What is the first step in scene size-up for an EMT?
Assessing patient airway
Checking scene safety
Performing primary assessment
Administering oxygen
The first step in scene size-up is ensuring scene safety to protect both the rescuer and the patient from hazards. Without confirming a safe environment, further assessment could put EMTs at risk. This foundational step is emphasized in EMS protocols.
What does BSI refer to in EMT practice?
Basic Scene Inspection
Breathing Support Intervention
Body Substance Isolation
Blood Sample Index
BSI stands for Body Substance Isolation, which includes using personal protective equipment to prevent transmission of pathogens from bodily fluids. It's a critical infection-control practice in EMS.
In the AVPU scale, what does 'P' indicate?
Pupils
Pain response
Pulse
Pressure
The 'P' in AVPU refers to the patient's response to painful stimuli and is used to assess level of consciousness. It helps determine if the patient reacts only when pain is applied.
What is the normal respiratory rate range for a healthy adult?
12-20 breaths/min
8-12 breaths/min
20-30 breaths/min
6-10 breaths/min
A normal adult respiratory rate is 12 - 20 breaths per minute, which reflects adequate ventilation without distress. Rates outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.
How deep should chest compressions be during adult CPR?
At least 2 inches
2.5 - 3 inches
At least 1 inch
1.5 - 2 inches
For adult CPR, chest compressions should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep to generate adequate blood flow during cardiac arrest. Compressing too shallowly reduces perfusion.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR?
15:2
30:2
30:1
15:1
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer performing adult CPR is 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths. This balance maximizes perfusion.
When is it appropriate to use an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
On conscious patient refusing airway adjunct
On unconscious patient without gag reflex
On conscious patient with gag reflex
On unconscious patient with intact gag reflex
An OPA is used to maintain a patent airway in an unconscious patient who lacks a gag reflex, preventing the tongue from occluding the airway. It is contraindicated if the patient has an intact gag reflex.
In the SAMPLE history mnemonic, what does 'M' stand for?
Medication
Mechanism
Meals
Medical history
In SAMPLE history, 'M' refers to current Medications the patient is taking, which can affect assessment and treatment decisions.
What is considered a normal systolic blood pressure for a healthy adult?
120-140 mmHg
60-80 mmHg
90-120 mmHg
80-90 mmHg
A normal adult systolic blood pressure ranges from 90 to 120 mmHg. Values outside this range may indicate hypo- or hypertension.
Where is the carotid pulse located?
Groin
Wrist
Neck
Ankle
The carotid pulse is felt on either side of the trachea in the neck region, making it the preferred site for checking pulse in unresponsive adults.
What does a reactive pupil indicate in a patient assessment?
Impaired circulation
Brainstem function intact
Respiratory distress
Hypoglycemia
Reactive pupils that constrict in response to light suggest that the brainstem is functioning properly. This is a key neurologic assessment.
What is the most reliable sign of adequate ventilation in an unresponsive patient with a pulse?
Pulse rate improvement
Chest rise
Body movement
Skin color
Visible chest rise confirms air is entering the lungs, making it the most reliable sign of effective ventilation.
In the OPQRST pain assessment, what does the 'P' stand for?
Palliation/Provocation
Pressure
Position
Pulse
The 'P' in OPQRST stands for what provokes or palliates the pain, helping determine factors that worsen or relieve it.
Which pulse is most appropriate to check on an infant under one year of age?
Brachial
Radial
Carotid
Femoral
The brachial pulse, located on the inside of the upper arm, is preferred for infants under one year because it is easily felt and reliable.
What does the 'V' in AVPU scale stand for?
Vascular response
Vision
Verbal response
Vital
The 'V' indicates the patient's response to verbal stimuli, assessing whether they can speak or respond appropriately.
Which of the following is part of the Good Samaritan law for EMTs?
Requires EMTs to transport every patient
Mandates reporting to law enforcement
Protects from liability if acting within scope and without gross negligence
Allows practice without certification
Good Samaritan laws generally protect healthcare providers from liability when they volunteer aid in an emergency and act within their scope without gross negligence.
What is the normal range for the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
8-20
1-10
3-15
0-10
The GCS ranges from 3, indicating deep coma, to 15, indicating a fully alert patient. Scores guide neurologic assessment.
What cylinder gauge reading indicates that an oxygen cylinder is close to empty?
Below 1500 psi
Below 200 psi
Below 500 psi
Below 1000 psi
An oxygen cylinder is considered near empty when the pressure gauge reads below 200 psi. Regular monitoring prevents running out mid-transport.
Which of the following is an indication for CPAP therapy in respiratory distress?
Moderate to severe respiratory distress with pulmonary edema
Hypotension
Altered mental status due to intoxication
Severe chest pain
CPAP is indicated in patients with moderate to severe respiratory distress, especially those with pulmonary edema, to improve oxygenation and reduce work of breathing.
What position should be used for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
Fowler's
Prone
Supine
Trendelenburg
The supine position helps improve venous return and perfusion in hypovolemic shock. Trendelenburg is no longer routinely recommended.
What type of mechanism is most likely to produce rotational cervical spine injury?
High center of gravity
Three-point restraint
Airbag deployment
Lap belt only
Three-point restraints can exert rotational forces on the cervical spine during high-speed collisions, increasing injury risk.
What must be assessed both before and after splinting a limb?
Patient's blood pressure
Muscle strength
Joint alignment
Distal pulse and sensation
Evaluating distal pulses and sensation before and after splinting confirms that circulation and nerve function remain intact.
Which physiological difference makes infants more prone to airway obstruction?
Larger tongue relative to mouth
Larger trachea
More rigid chest wall
Smaller head
Infants have a proportionately larger tongue relative to their oral cavity, increasing the risk of airway obstruction by the tongue.
At what SpO2 level should a COPD patient receive supplemental oxygen?
Below 94%
Above 100%
Below 80%
Above 98%
COPD patients typically receive supplemental oxygen if their SpO2 falls below 94%, with a target range of 88 - 92% to avoid hypercapnia.
Which sign differentiates heat exhaustion from heat stroke?
Dry, hot skin
Profuse sweating
Elevated pulse
Mild headache
Heat stroke patients often present with hot, dry skin due to failure of thermoregulatory sweating. Heat exhaustion typically involves profuse sweating.
Which rhythm is characterized by chaotic, disorganized electrical activity with no pulse?
Ventricular tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation
Asystole
Atrial flutter
Ventricular fibrillation is a chaotic rhythm without organized ventricular contractions, resulting in no cardiac output and requiring immediate defibrillation.
What is the preferred site for intraosseous (IO) access in infants?
Sternum
Tibial tuberosity
Femoral head
Humeral head
The proximal tibial tuberosity is the most common IO access site in infants and children due to its ease of access and low risk of complications.
Which of the following is a contraindication to subcutaneous epinephrine administration in anaphylaxis?
Angioedema
Hypotension
None in emergency setting
Severe wheezing
In anaphylaxis, there are no contraindications to epinephrine administration in the emergency setting; it is life-saving and should not be withheld.
How often should you check the pulse when performing rescue breaths with a pulse?
Every 30 seconds
Every 2 minutes
Not necessary
Every 15 seconds
When providing rescue breaths to a patient with a pulse but inadequate breathing, you should recheck the pulse every 15 seconds to ensure circulation is maintained.
Which phase of cardiac arrest care includes defibrillation?
Early defibrillation
Early access
Post-resuscitation
Early CPR
Early defibrillation is the third link in the Chain of Survival for cardiac arrest and involves delivering an electrical shock to restore organized cardiac rhythm.
Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and hypotension due to spinal cord injury?
Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Neurogenic shock results from loss of sympathetic tone following a high spinal cord injury, causing vasodilation and relative hypovolemia.
Which sign is part of Cushing's triad in increased intracranial pressure?
Bradypnea
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Hypertension with widened pulse pressure
Cushing's triad includes hypertension with widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations, indicating increased intracranial pressure.
Treatment for tension pneumothorax in the field includes:
Needle decompression above the 2nd rib at midclavicular line
Trendelenburg position
100% oxygen only
Chest tube insertion by EMT
Needle decompression in the 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line relieves tension and is the immediate prehospital treatment.
A Beck's triad indicates which condition?
Hemothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Aortic dissection
Tension pneumothorax
Beck's triad - hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distention - is classic for cardiac tamponade.
Which of the following is most likely to produce rhabdomyolysis?
Mild sprain
Blunt abdominal trauma
Prolonged immobilization
Simple fracture
Prolonged immobilization can cause muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium and myoglobin.
Which acid-base imbalance is commonly seen in DKA?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Diabetic ketoacidosis results in metabolic acidosis due to accumulation of ketoacids from fat metabolism.
Which arrhythmia is most commonly associated with myocardial infarction?
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
Junctional rhythm
Ventricular tachycardia frequently occurs after myocardial infarction due to ischemic myocardial tissue becoming irritable.
A patient with DKA is likely to present with:
Hypoventilation
Cool, clammy skin
Warm, dry skin
Bradycardia
Patients in DKA often have warm, dry skin due to dehydration from osmotic diuresis.
Which of the following is a contraindication for CPAP?
Pneumothorax
Moderate respiratory distress
Pulmonary edema
Acute exacerbation of COPD
A suspected or confirmed pneumothorax is a contraindication to CPAP because positive pressure can worsen the condition.
Which finding is consistent with high-altitude pulmonary edema?
Absent breath sounds
Jugular venous distention
Stridor
Crackles and frothy sputum
High-altitude pulmonary edema presents with crackles on auscultation and frothy sputum from fluid leakage into alveoli.
Which medication is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia in the prehospital setting?
Epinephrine
Amiodarone
Adenosine
Atropine
Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate by blocking parasympathetic influences.
Which clinical sign suggests a basilar skull fracture?
Third spacing edema
Battle's sign
Absent gag reflex
Torsades de pointes
Battle's sign, bruising over the mastoid process, indicates bleeding from a basilar skull fracture.
Which of the following is the most serious complication of a femur fracture?
Avascular necrosis
Osteomyelitis
Compartment syndrome
Hypovolemic shock
A femur fracture can cause significant internal bleeding, leading to hypovolemic shock if not managed promptly.
What is the correct initial dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis in adults?
1 mg IV
0.3-0.5 mg IM
5 mg nebulized
0.01 mg IM
The recommended adult dose of intramuscular epinephrine for anaphylaxis is 0.3 - 0.5 mg, which rapidly reverses airway edema and hypotension.
Which gas is measured directly by capnography during ventilation?
Oxygen
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen
CO2
Capnography directly measures end-tidal CO2, which reflects ventilation status and can indicate changes in perfusion or airway patency.
Which of the following is a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
Hypoglycemia
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoxia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia can disrupt cardiac conduction, producing electrical activity without mechanical contraction, resulting in PEA.
Which physiologic change characterizes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Decreased alveolar-capillary permeability
Increased lung compliance
Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Bronchoconstriction
ARDS is marked by increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema and hypoxemia.
In crush syndrome, which electrolyte abnormality is most life-threatening?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia from muscle cell breakdown in crush injuries can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias if not treated promptly.
Which mechanism explains neurogenic shock after spinal cord injury?
Hypovolemia due to hemorrhage
Massive histamine release
Loss of sympathetic tone leading to vasodilation
Increased parasympathetic activity leading to vasoconstriction
Neurogenic shock occurs when spinal cord injury disrupts sympathetic pathways, causing unopposed parasympathetic activity and vasodilation.
Which component of the Glasgow Coma Scale assesses verbal response in an unconscious patient?
Incomprehensible sounds
Localizes pain
Withdrawal to pain
Oriented conversation
The GCS verbal score of 2 is 'incomprehensible sounds,' used when the patient makes sounds but no words. This helps assess neurologic function.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis classified as?
Type II
Type I
Type III
Type IV
Anaphylaxis is a Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies that trigger massive histamine release from mast cells.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Core EMT Module 1 Exam Protocols -

    Grasp the foundational principles of the EMT Module 1 exam, including patient assessment steps, ABCs, and vital sign measurement to reinforce your readiness.

  2. Identify Airway Management Techniques -

    Recognize and differentiate basic airway devices and their indications, drawing on key concepts from EMT Module 1 to ensure proper patient care.

  3. Apply Patient Assessment Principles from EMT Test 1 -

    Practice conducting a thorough scene size-up, primary assessment, and focused physical exam using protocols emphasized in EMT module training.

  4. Analyze Emergency Scenarios -

    Evaluate simulated situations to prioritize life-threatening conditions and determine appropriate interventions based on EMT Module 1 guidelines.

  5. Demonstrate Accurate Vital Signs Measurement -

    Perform correct blood pressure, pulse, and respiration assessments and document findings effectively, as outlined in your EMT Module 1 exam review.

  6. Recall Basic Pharmacology Concepts -

    Identify common medications covered in EMT Module 1, understand their indications, and reinforce the pharmacological knowledge needed for prehospital care.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) Mnemonic -

    Master the A-B-C acronym to quickly identify life-threatening conditions: ensure a patent airway, assess breathing quality, then evaluate circulation by checking pulse and skin signs (AHA Guidelines, 2020). Practicing this sequence on manikins will build the rapid decision-making skills needed for the emt module 1 exam. Remember "A before B before C" to stay calm and systematic under pressure.

  2. Primary Assessment & Patient Priority -

    Use the Primary Assessment framework - general impression, mental status (AVPU), airway, breathing, circulation - to determine immediate interventions (NREMT® Candidate Handbook, 2021). For example, if a patient is unresponsive (U on AVPU) with absent breathing, start ventilations immediately. This structured approach is a cornerstone of emt test 1 scenarios.

  3. Vital Signs & Medical Terminology -

    Learn to accurately measure and interpret blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, and SpO2, along with common abbreviations like B/P for blood pressure and R for respiratory rate (CDC EMT Field Guide, 2019). A useful trick is "P-R-B-S": Pulse, Respiration, Blood pressure, Skin. Consistent practice ensures speed and confidence on the emt module 1 exam.

  4. Patient Assessment Triangle -

    Employ the visual Patient Assessment Triangle - appearance, work of breathing, circulation to skin - to rapidly form an overall impression without touching the patient (EMSC, 2018). For instance, exaggerated chest movements signal respiratory distress. This hands-off method jumpstarts critical thinking in both drills and real-world calls.

  5. Infection Control & PPE Protocols -

    Review standard precautions: hand hygiene, gloves, eye protection, and N95 respirators when indicated (OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, 2020). A simple rhyme - "Wash, Wear, Waste" - reminds you to wash hands, wear gear, and dispose safely. Solid infection control knowledge is vital for patient and provider safety on every emt module quiz.

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