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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Diseases & Conditions

Take the Sexually Transmitted Infections Quiz and Prove Your Expertise

Think you know STIs? Take our sexually transmitted diseases quiz and test your sexual health smarts!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art icons of medical symbols and quiz elements floating on sky blue background for STI quiz.

Curious about those rumors, myths, and must-know tips surrounding sexual health? Test yourself with our free sexually transmitted infections quiz, designed to uncover what you really know about STI facts, symptoms, prevention strategies, and when to seek help. Whether you're a college student, an educator, or simply someone invested in personal wellness, this engaging sexual health quiz offers immediate feedback and key insights to boost your confidence. Ready to separate fact from fiction and sharpen your awareness? Jump in now by trying our STI quiz , then broaden your understanding with a quick sexual health check - let's begin!

Which of the following is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted infection worldwide?
Treponema pallidum
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Trichomonas vaginalis
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most frequently reported bacterial STI globally due to its often asymptomatic nature and high transmission rate. Routine screening programs target chlamydia to help reduce its prevalence. Early detection and single-dose azithromycin treatment effectively clear the infection.
Which virus is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts?
Cytomegalovirus
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Human immunodeficiency virus
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11 cause most cases of genital warts. Infection with these low-risk HPV types leads to benign epithelial growths on the genital mucosa. Vaccination against HPV can prevent these infections.
Which sexually transmitted infection often presents with painless genital ulcers in its primary stage?
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
Chlamydia
Primary syphilis typically presents with a painless chancre at the site of Treponema pallidum inoculation. Because the ulcer is painless, patients may overlook it, facilitating spread. Serologic tests and penicillin treatment are used to confirm and cure the infection.
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated genital chlamydia infection?
Metronidazole single dose
Ceftriaxone injection
Doxycycline for 7 days
Azithromycin single dose
A single dose of azithromycin 1g orally is recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated chlamydia. This regimen has high efficacy and promotes adherence. Alternative doxycycline regimens are also effective but require a week of treatment.
Which test is recommended for routine screening of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in asymptomatic women?
Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Gram stain of discharge
Culture on chocolate agar
Dark-field microscopy
NAAT is the preferred screening test for gonorrhea due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It can be performed on urine or vaginal swabs, making it noninvasive. Early detection with NAAT reduces complications like pelvic inflammatory disease.
Which organism causes trichomoniasis, a common protozoan STI?
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichinella spiralis
Trypanosoma cruzi
Toxoplasma gondii
Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan responsible for trichomoniasis. It often causes vaginal discharge in women and can be asymptomatic in men. Metronidazole is the standard treatment.
Which symptom is most commonly reported by men with untreated gonorrhea?
Urethral discharge
Genital ulcers
Pelvic pain
Rash
Urethral discharge, often purulent, is the hallmark of untreated gonorrhea in men. Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the urethral mucosa causing inflammation. Prompt treatment with ceftriaxone and azithromycin prevents complications.
Which sexually transmitted infection is known to facilitate HIV transmission due to mucosal disruption?
HPV
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
Chlamydia
Syphilis causes ulcers that disrupt mucosal barriers, increasing HIV acquisition risk. The inflammatory response also recruits target cells for HIV. Managing syphilis early reduces HIV transmission potential.
What prevention method is most effective at reducing the risk of most sexually transmitted infections?
Oral contraceptive pills
Vitamin supplementation
Consistent and correct condom use
Female hormonal ring
Condoms act as a barrier preventing exchange of infectious bodily fluids. Consistent and correct use reduces transmission of HIV, chlamydia, gonorrhea, and other STIs. Other contraceptives do not protect against infections.
Which vaccine is recommended to prevent the most common cancer-causing HPV types?
HPV 9-valent vaccine
MMR vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Influenza vaccine
The 9-valent HPV vaccine protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18 and five additional oncogenic strains. It prevents cervical, anal, and oropharyngeal cancers. Vaccination is recommended before onset of sexual activity.
Which early symptom is most commonly associated with acute HIV infection?
Genital warts
Trichomonas discharge
Painless chancre
Flu-like illness with fever and sore throat
Acute HIV infection often presents as a non-specific flu-like illness with fever, lymphadenopathy, and sore throat. This seroconversion illness occurs 2 - 4 weeks after exposure. Early diagnosis via HIV RNA testing enables prompt antiretroviral therapy.
Which sexually transmitted infection is a leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in women?
Human papillomavirus
Treponema pallidum
Herpes simplex virus
Chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis ascends from the cervix to infect the upper reproductive tract, causing pelvic inflammatory disease. Many cases are asymptomatic until complications arise. Screening and treatment reduce long-term sequelae like infertility.
Which spirochete bacterium is responsible for syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Borrelia burgdorferi
Spirochaeta plicatilis
Leptospira interrogans
Treponema pallidum is the spirochete that causes syphilis, transmitted via sexual contact. It has a complex multi-stage clinical course if untreated. Penicillin remains the treatment of choice.
Which screening recommendation applies to sexually active women under age 25?
Monthly HIV testing
Annual chlamydia and gonorrhea testing
One-time HPV testing
Quarterly syphilis testing
Annual screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea is recommended for sexually active women under 25 to detect asymptomatic infections. Early treatment prevents complications like PID. Older women at higher risk may also be tested.
Which serologic test is commonly used to confirm a syphilis diagnosis after a reactive non-treponemal test?
Vaginal wet mount
HIV ELISA
Fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS)
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
FTA-ABS is a treponemal test used to confirm syphilis after a reactive RPR or VDRL non-treponemal screen. It remains positive for life, confirming exposure. Non-treponemal titers guide treatment response.
Which common nickname refers to gonorrhea?
The itch
The clap
The pox
The drip
Gonorrhea has historically been called "the clap," possibly referring to an old treatment method or the sound of infection in the urethra. It is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Modern diagnosis relies on NAAT and treatment on dual therapy.
What is the average incubation period for genital herpes caused by HSV-2?
14 - 21 days
30 - 60 days
1 - 2 days
4 - 7 days
The incubation period for HSV-2 genital herpes averages 4 - 7 days post-exposure. Symptoms can appear as early as 2 days or as late as 12 days. Understanding timing helps differentiate primary from recurrent outbreaks.
Which diagnostic method is most sensitive for detecting asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis in men?
Urine-based NAAT
Serology
Gram stain
Urethral culture
Urine-based NAAT is highly sensitive and specific for detecting chlamydia in asymptomatic men. Non-invasive sampling improves screening uptake. Culture and Gram stain are less sensitive, and serology lacks diagnostic specificity.
Which antiviral regimen is recommended for suppressive therapy in recurrent genital herpes?
Ganciclovir topical
Acyclovir single dose
Famciclovir every 12 hours
Valacyclovir once daily
Valacyclovir 500 mg once daily provides effective suppressive therapy for recurrent genital herpes. It reduces outbreak frequency and viral shedding. Acyclovir and famciclovir are alternatives but have different dosing schedules.
Which of the following is a recommended strategy to prevent neonatal herpes transmission?
Routine neonatal HSV vaccination
Immediate breastfeeding
Cesarean delivery if active lesions present
Prophylactic penicillin during labor
Cesarean delivery is recommended when active genital herpes lesions or prodromal symptoms are present at labor onset to reduce neonatal HSV transmission. No vaccine is currently available. Antiviral suppression in late pregnancy also lowers risk.
In men who have sex with men (MSM), how often is syphilis screening recommended if they are at high risk?
Every 3 months
Only if symptomatic
Annually
Every 6 months
High-risk MSM should be screened for syphilis every 3 months due to higher incidence rates. Frequent testing allows early detection and treatment. Annual screening is insufficient in this group.
Which laboratory method distinguishes between herpes simplex virus type 1 and type 2?
RPR test
Routine viral culture
Type-specific serologic assays
Gram stain
Type-specific serologic assays detect antibodies that distinguish HSV-1 from HSV-2. Viral culture and PCR detect HSV but often require type-specific primers. Serology helps guide counseling and management.
Which of the following best describes the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
Allergic reaction to penicillin
Severe headache from ceftriaxone
Delayed rash from tetracycline use
Acute inflammatory response after antibiotic treatment for syphilis
The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is a transient inflammatory response within 24 hours of syphilis treatment due to spirochetal lysis. Symptoms include fever, rigors, headache, and myalgias. It is self-limited and managed supportively.
Which co-infection most commonly occurs with HIV in intravenous drug users?
Syphilis
Hepatitis C virus
Trichomonas vaginalis
Human papillomavirus
Hepatitis C virus co-infection is common in HIV-positive intravenous drug users due to shared transmission routes. Co-infection accelerates liver disease progression. Screening and antiviral therapy are critical.
Which type of HPV is most strongly associated with cervical cancer?
HPV 42
HPV 6
HPV 11
HPV 16
HPV 16 is the most oncogenic strain, causing about 50% of cervical cancers globally. HPV 18 accounts for another 20%. Vaccination targets these types to reduce cancer risk.
Which antibiotic regimen is currently recommended for uncomplicated gonorrhea given rising resistance?
Penicillin VK two weeks
Doxycycline alone
Ciprofloxacin alone
Ceftriaxone IM single dose plus azithromycin
Dual therapy with ceftriaxone IM and azithromycin is recommended to address potential resistance and treat possible chlamydia co-infection. Monotherapy is discouraged due to widespread fluoroquinolone resistance. Updated guidelines continue to monitor local susceptibility.
Which factor most increases the sensitivity of syphilis serologic testing in secondary syphilis?
Painless ulcer formation
High antibody titers lead to reactive non-treponemal tests
Dark-field microscopy positivity
Granuloma inguinale cross-reactivity
Secondary syphilis features high levels of anti-treponemal antibodies, yielding strongly reactive RPR or VDRL tests. This phase has broad mucocutaneous manifestations. Confirmatory treponemal tests remain positive throughout infection.
Which type of antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for sexual contacts of someone with recent syphilis exposure?
Single dose benzathine penicillin
No prophylaxis recommended
Azithromycin single dose
Doxycycline 7 days
A single dose of benzathine penicillin is often given to sexual contacts of syphilis cases to prevent infection. Prophylaxis decisions are based on exposure timing and index case stage. This strategy reduces transmission.
Which method is most reliable for diagnosing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) related to STIs?
Transvaginal ultrasound alone
Pelvic MRI
Laparoscopy in all cases
Clinical criteria and NAAT for chlamydia/gonorrhea
PID diagnosis relies primarily on clinical signs (e.g., cervical motion tenderness) plus NAAT to identify chlamydia or gonorrhea. Imaging supports but does not replace clinical evaluation. Routine laparoscopy is not recommended.
Which molecular method can differentiate between strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae for epidemiologic surveillance?
Multilocus sequence typing (MLST)
RPR test
ELISA antigen detection
Gram stain
MLST analyzes sequences of housekeeping genes to distinguish N. gonorrhoeae strains. It helps track transmission patterns and resistance. Culture and antigen tests lack genotypic detail.
Which genetic mutation in Neisseria gonorrhoeae is most associated with high-level azithromycin resistance?
23S rRNA gene mutations
PenA mosaic alleles
PorB alterations
PilE gene variation
Mutations in the 23S rRNA gene confer high-level azithromycin resistance in N. gonorrhoeae. PenA mosaic alleles relate to cephalosporin resistance. Identifying these mutations guides therapy choices.
Which of the following best characterizes the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction in syphilis therapy?
Delayed-type hypersensitivity to treponemal antigens
Cytokine-mediated systemic response to spirochetal lysis
Localized injection site inflammation
Anaphylactic allergic reaction to penicillin
The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction arises from rapid spirochete destruction and cytokine release. It presents with fever, chills, and worsening rash. It is not an allergy to penicillin.
Which biomarker is used to assess treatment response in syphilis patients after penicillin therapy?
FTA-ABS negativity
Non-treponemal titer decline
Complete blood count
HIV viral load
Non-treponemal titers (RPR/VDRL) should decline fourfold by 6 - 12 months after treatment, indicating an adequate response. Treponemal tests remain positive lifelong. Monitoring titers guides retreatment decisions.
Which resistance mechanism has emerged in gonococcal strains reducing ceftriaxone efficacy?
Altered penA gene encoding PBP2
Lipooligosaccharide truncation
Efflux pump overexpression only
Porin channel enlargement
Mutations in penA lead to altered PBP2, reducing cephalosporin binding and effectiveness. Efflux pumps and porin changes also contribute but penA is primary. Surveillance tracks penA variants to inform therapy.
Which advanced imaging technique can help diagnose complicated pelvic inflammatory disease?
Hysterosalpingography
Ultrasound without Doppler
Contrast-enhanced MRI
Plain abdominal X-ray
Contrast-enhanced MRI provides detailed soft tissue resolution, detecting abscesses and tube-ovarian complexes in complicated PID. Transvaginal ultrasound with Doppler is also used but MRI is superior for anatomy. Hysterosalpingography evaluates tubal patency rather than acute infection.
Which immunologic marker is elevated during primary HIV infection before seroconversion?
CD4 count
HIV antibodies
HIV RNA viral load
Interferon-gamma release
HIV RNA emerges in blood within days of infection, peaking before antibodies appear. Seroconversion follows 3 - 6 weeks later. Early RNA testing enables prompt diagnosis and linkage to care.
Which molecular assay is most accurate for diagnosing Mycoplasma genitalium infection?
Culture on special media
Serology
Gram stain
PCR-based NAAT
PCR-based NAAT is the gold standard for M. genitalium due to the organism's fastidious nature. Culture is difficult and time-consuming. Serology lacks diagnostic utility.
Which therapy is recommended for azithromycin-resistant Mycoplasma genitalium?
Moxifloxacin for 7 - 10 days
Metronidazole single dose
Ceftriaxone single dose
Doxycycline for 21 days
Moxifloxacin 400 mg daily for 7 - 10 days treats macrolide-resistant M. genitalium effectively. Doxycycline has lower cure rates. Fluoroquinolone therapy addresses resistance.
Which public health strategy has most reduced syphilis incidence in antenatal populations?
HPV vaccination
Monthly HIV testing
Universal HSV prophylaxis
Universal prenatal syphilis screening
Universal prenatal screening with prompt penicillin treatment prevents congenital syphilis. Many countries have seen marked declines after implementing this. Other vaccinations do not impact syphilis.
Which advanced resistance mechanism allows Treponema pallidum to evade detection in serologic tests?
Beta-lactamase production
Porin loss
Phase variation of surface proteins
Efflux pump overexpression
Treponema pallidum uses phase variation of surface proteins to escape immune detection, affecting serologic assay sensitivity in early infection. It does not produce beta-lactamase. Such variation complicates vaccine development.
Which advanced point-of-care test can differentiate active from past syphilis infection?
Non-treponemal lateral flow assay
Single treponemal rapid test
Dual non-treponemal/treponemal rapid test
PCR on lesion exudate
Dual rapid tests provide both treponemal and non-treponemal results, indicating active vs. past treated syphilis. Single treponemal tests cannot distinguish treatment history. Lesion PCR confirms presence but not stage.
In research settings, which next-generation sequencing application tracks gonococcal antimicrobial resistance globally?
Targeted 16S rRNA sequencing
RNA-Seq transcription profiling
Metagenomic stool analysis
Whole-genome sequencing surveillance
Whole-genome sequencing identifies mutations conferring resistance and tracks strain transmission. RNA-Seq and 16S approaches do not resolve strain-level resistance. Global genomic databases rely on WGS data.
Which cytokine profile is associated with effective mucosal defense against initial HSV infection?
Regulatory cytokines (e.g., IL-10)
Th1-type cytokines (e.g., IFN-?, IL-2)
Th2-type cytokines (e.g., IL-4, IL-5)
Pro-fibrotic cytokines (e.g., TGF-?)
Th1 responses with IFN-? and IL-2 activate cellular immunity crucial for controlling HSV. Th2 cytokines promote humoral responses but are less effective at viral clearance. Regulatory cytokines can dampen effective antiviral immunity.
Which factor most influences the basic reproduction number (R0) of an STI in epidemiologic models?
Rate of partner change and transmission probability per contact
Seasonal variation in temperature
Percentage using hormonal contraception
Average age at first birth
R0 depends on contact rate (partner change rate) and per-contact transmission probability. Duration of infectiousness also influences R0. Demographic factors like contraception use have indirect effects.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Identify Common STIs -

    Learn to recognize the most prevalent sexually transmitted infections covered in this STI quiz, including their symptoms and transmission methods.

  2. Recall Key Facts and Myths -

    Distinguish accurate information from widespread misconceptions about STIs and STDs to strengthen your sexual health knowledge.

  3. Analyze Risk Factors -

    Evaluate behaviors and factors that increase vulnerability to infections, empowering you to make informed decisions.

  4. Apply Prevention Strategies -

    Discover practical measures for reducing STI risk, from barrier protection to routine testing protocols.

  5. Assess Personal Awareness -

    Gauge your current understanding of sexual health and identify areas for further learning and improvement.

  6. Enhance Sexual Health Responsibility -

    Gain actionable steps to communicate effectively with partners and healthcare providers about STI prevention and screening.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Transmission Pathways -

    Sexually transmitted infections spread primarily through the exchange of bodily fluids during vaginal, anal, or oral sex, and some can transfer via close skin”to”skin contact (e.g., HPV, herpes simplex). Understanding routes like vertical transmission (mother to child) and bloodborne exposure is crucial for prevention. For instance, hepatitis B can be contracted through shared needles and perinatal exposure, emphasizing the need for immunization and safe practices (CDC, 2023).

  2. Common STIs, Symptoms & Incubation -

    Familiarize yourself with key STIs - chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, HIV, HPV, and trichomoniasis - and their typical incubation periods (2 - 90 days). Use the mnemonic "TIP" (Trichomoniasis: foul discharge, Incubation: variable, Painful ulcers) to recall onset and hallmark signs. Early detection hinges on symptom awareness: chlamydia and gonorrhea often present silently, while syphilis can manifest as painless sores (WHO, 2022).

  3. Diagnostic Testing Methods -

    Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the gold standard for detecting chlamydia and gonorrhea, offering >95% sensitivity, while serologic tests screen for syphilis and HIV antibodies. Yearly screening is recommended for sexually active individuals under 25 or those with new/multiple partners. Remember "Get SMART" (Specific, Multiple tests, Antibody-based, Rapid when needed, Timely reporting) to ensure comprehensive diagnostics (NIH, 2021).

  4. Prevention Strategies & Vaccines -

    Adopt the "ABC" approach: Abstinence/Avoid risk, Be faithful/reduce partners, and Condom use consistently. HPV vaccination (ages 9 - 26) and hepatitis B immunization provide potent protection against viral STIs and related cancers. Pre”exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention further reduces risk by over 90% when taken as prescribed (CDC, 2023).

  5. Treatment Protocols & Resistance -

    Follow CDC's updated treatment guidelines: azithromycin or doxycycline for chlamydia, ceftriaxone plus doxycycline for gonorrhea, and benzathine penicillin G for syphilis. Antibiotic stewardship is vital - complete courses to prevent resistance, especially with multidrug”resistant gonorrhea. Always schedule test”of”cure visits as recommended to confirm eradication and curb transmission (WHO, 2022).

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