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Autonomic Nervous System Quiz: Are You an ANS Expert?

Challenge Your Grasp of Thoracolumbar Outflow & ANS Physiology - Start Now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration shows sympathetic parasympathetic pathways from thoracolumbar region on dark blue background.

Ready to unlock the mysteries of your body's autopilot? Take our autonomic nervous system quiz and challenge your grasp of thoracolumbar outflow, sympathetic nervous system quiz scenarios, and parasympathetic nervous system trivia. Whether you're tackling tricky ANS physiology questions or warming up with a friendly nervous system anatomy and physiology quiz , you'll deepen your understanding of fight-or-flight vs. rest-and-digest pathways. Perfect for students, future healthcare pros, and curious minds, this engaging practice test will boost your confidence and spark curiosity. Dive in now and see how well you know your nervous system!

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is characterized by thoracolumbar outflow?
Sympathetic
Somatic
Parasympathetic
Enteric
The sympathetic division arises from the thoracolumbar segments (T1 - L2) of the spinal cord, thus its outflow is termed thoracolumbar. This contrasts with the craniosacral outflow of the parasympathetic division. Sympathetic nerves prepare the body for 'fight or flight' responses. Learn more
The primary neurotransmitter released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons is:
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Preganglionic neurons of both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions release acetylcholine onto nicotinic receptors in ganglia. In the sympathetic chain, acetylcholine acts on nicotinic receptors to propagate the signal. Norepinephrine is released by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers. Learn more
Which receptor type is primarily activated by norepinephrine on target organs?
Alpha-adrenergic receptors
Nicotinic receptors
Dopaminergic receptors
Muscarinic receptors
Norepinephrine released from postganglionic sympathetic fibers binds primarily to alpha-adrenergic receptors (?1 and ?2) on effector tissues. Beta-adrenergic receptors also respond to norepinephrine but with lower affinity than epinephrine. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors bind acetylcholine. Learn more
Parasympathetic outflow originates from which regions of the central nervous system?
Thoracolumbar
Craniosacral
Cervicothoracic
Lumbosacral
The parasympathetic division emerges from the brainstem (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X) and sacral spinal segments (S2 - S4), hence called craniosacral outflow. It conserves energy and promotes 'rest and digest' functions. Thoracolumbar outflow refers to the sympathetic division. Learn more
Which ganglia are located close to the spinal cord in the sympathetic chain?
Celiac ganglia
Prevertebral ganglia
Paravertebral ganglia
Collateral ganglia
Paravertebral (sympathetic chain) ganglia lie adjacent to the vertebral column bilaterally, forming the sympathetic trunk. Prevertebral or collateral ganglia lie anterior to the vertebral column near major abdominal arteries. Celiac ganglia are a type of prevertebral ganglia. Learn more
Which receptor subtype mediates slowing of heart rate in the parasympathetic system?
M1 muscarinic receptor
M2 muscarinic receptor
Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
Nicotinic receptor
M2 muscarinic receptors in the sinoatrial node mediate parasympathetic slowing of heart rate by increasing potassium conductance and decreasing cAMP. M1 receptors are found in CNS and glands. Nicotinic receptors are on autonomic ganglia. Learn more
Pupillary dilation (mydriasis) is mediated by activation of which system?
Enteric
Parasympathetic
Somatic motor
Sympathetic
Sympathetic stimulation activates ?1 receptors on the radial dilator pupillae muscle, causing pupil dilation. Parasympathetic activation constricts the pupil via muscarinic receptors on the sphincter pupillae. Somatic motor regulates voluntary muscles, not pupil size. Learn more
Rest-and-digest responses are characteristic of which autonomic division?
Sympathetic
Central
Somatic
Parasympathetic
The parasympathetic division conserves energy, promotes digestion, and supports 'rest-and-digest' activities. It decreases heart rate and increases gastrointestinal motility. The sympathetic division supports 'fight-or-flight' responses. Learn more
Which enzyme degrades acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
Adenylate cyclase
Catechol-O-methyltransferase
Acetylcholinesterase
Monoamine oxidase
Acetylcholinesterase, located in the synaptic cleft and on the postsynaptic membrane, rapidly hydrolyzes acetylcholine into choline and acetate. Monoamine oxidase and COMT degrade catecholamines. Adenylate cyclase synthesizes cAMP, not involved in ACh degradation. Learn more
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers use which neurotransmitter at the synapse with postganglionic neurons?
Glutamate
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine onto nicotinic receptors in parasympathetic ganglia. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers also release ACh onto muscarinic receptors in effector organs. Norepinephrine is used by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons. Learn more
Which enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine in the adrenal medulla?
Dopamine ?-hydroxylase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Monoamine oxidase
Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
PNMT methylates norepinephrine to form epinephrine in chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. Tyrosine hydroxylase initiates catecholamine synthesis by converting tyrosine to DOPA. Dopamine ?-hydroxylase converts dopamine to norepinephrine. Learn more
Activation of ?1-adrenergic receptors increases cAMP via which G protein?
Gq
G12/13
Gs
Gi
?1-adrenergic receptors couple to the stimulatory G protein Gs, which activates adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, Gq activates phospholipase C, and G12/13 is involved in cytoskeletal changes. Learn more
Which drug is a selective competitive antagonist at ?1-adrenergic receptors?
Phentolamine
Prazosin
Propanolol
Clonidine
Prazosin selectively blocks ?1 receptors, causing vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. Phentolamine blocks both ?1 and ?2. Propranolol is a nonselective ?-blocker. Clonidine is an ?2 agonist, reducing sympathetic outflow. Learn more
Sympathetic cholinergic fibers innervating sweat glands act on which receptor subtype?
?2-adrenergic receptors
Nicotinic receptors
?1-adrenergic receptors
Muscarinic receptors
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating eccrine sweat glands release acetylcholine onto muscarinic receptors. This cholinergic exception differs from most sympathetic targets, which use norepinephrine. Nicotinic receptors are located in autonomic ganglia. Learn more
The baroreceptor reflex that responds to increased blood pressure involves which brainstem nucleus?
Nucleus tractus solitarius
Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus
Rostral ventrolateral medulla
Nucleus ambiguus
Baroreceptor afferents synapse in the nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) of the medulla. The NTS integrates blood pressure information and modulates sympathetic and parasympathetic outflow. The rostral ventrolateral medulla drives sympathetic tone, and the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus mediates parasympathetic output. Learn more
Which cranial nerve carries the majority of parasympathetic outflow to thoracic and abdominal organs?
Vagus (X)
Oculomotor (III)
Facial (VII)
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
The vagus nerve provides preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the heart, lungs, and most of the gastrointestinal tract down to the proximal colon. Glossopharyngeal supplies parotid gland parasympathetic fibers. Facial innervates lacrimal and salivary glands. Learn more
Which muscarinic antagonist is used clinically to treat symptomatic bradycardia?
Bethanechol
Atropine
Neostigmine
Pilocarpine
Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors, inhibiting parasympathetic tone and increasing heart rate. Pilocarpine and bethanechol are muscarinic agonists, and neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Learn more
Sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system but release which neurotransmitter?
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Eccrine sweat glands receive sympathetic cholinergic innervation, releasing acetylcholine onto muscarinic receptors to stimulate sweating. This is a unique exception in the sympathetic system. Most sympathetic targets use norepinephrine. Learn more
Which G protein is coupled to ?2-adrenergic receptors to inhibit adenylate cyclase?
G12/13
Gq
Gs
Gi
?2-adrenergic receptors couple to Gi proteins, which inhibit adenylate cyclase, reducing cAMP levels and decreasing neurotransmitter release. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, Gq activates phospholipase C. Learn more
Activation of the sympathetic system increases which metabolic process?
Bile secretion
Lipolysis
Glycogenesis
Protein synthesis
Sympathetic activation stimulates ?-adrenergic receptors in adipocytes, increasing lipolysis to release free fatty acids for energy. Glycogenesis is a storage process inhibited during acute sympathetic responses. Learn more
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers that cause pupillary dilation originate from which spinal levels?
T10 - T12
L1 - L2
T1 - T2 (ciliospinal center of Budge)
C3 - C5
The ciliospinal center of Budge lies in spinal segments T1 - T2; preganglionic fibers ascend in the sympathetic chain to the superior cervical ganglion and then innervate the dilator pupillae. Lesions here cause ipsilateral Horner's syndrome. Learn more
Splanchnic nerves are preganglionic sympathetic fibers that synapse in which ganglia?
Intramural ganglia
Paravertebral (chain) ganglia
Cervical ganglia
Prevertebral (collateral) ganglia
Greater, lesser, and least splanchnic nerves bypass the sympathetic chain and synapse in prevertebral ganglia (e.g., celiac, superior mesenteric). Paravertebral ganglia are the sympathetic chain. Intramural ganglia are seen in parasympathetic pathways. Learn more
Phenylephrine exerts its primary effect by agonizing which receptor?
?1-adrenergic
?2-adrenergic
?2-adrenergic
?1-adrenergic
Phenylephrine is a selective ?1 agonist, causing vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure. It has minimal activity at ? receptors. ?2 receptors mediate presynaptic inhibition. Learn more
Pilocarpine, used in glaucoma, is an agonist at which receptor subtype?
?-adrenergic receptors
Muscarinic receptors
?-adrenergic receptors
Nicotinic receptors
Pilocarpine is a muscarinic agonist that increases outflow of aqueous humor by contracting the ciliary muscle. It binds to muscarinic receptors in the eye. Nicotinic receptors are found in ganglia and neuromuscular junctions. Learn more
Autonomic nerve varicosities differ from typical synaptic boutons because they:
Contain no synaptic vesicles
Release neurotransmitter along axon length
Only release peptides
Form discrete synaptic clefts only
Autonomic varicosities are swellings along postganglionic axons that release neurotransmitter over a broader area rather than at a single synaptic cleft. They contain vesicles with neurotransmitter and sometimes co-transmitters. This allows diffuse modulation of smooth muscle and glands. Learn more
Activation of presynaptic ?2-adrenergic receptors on sympathetic terminals results in:
Increased norepinephrine release
Vasodilation via nitric oxide
Increased acetylcholine release
Inhibition of norepinephrine release
Presynaptic ?2 receptors couple to Gi proteins and inhibit adenylate cyclase, reducing neurotransmitter release. This provides negative feedback to control norepinephrine release. Activation does not directly affect acetylcholine or nitric oxide production. Learn more
Parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland travels primarily through which cranial nerve?
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Vagus (X)
Trigeminal (V)
Facial (VII)
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus, travel via glossopharyngeal nerve and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Postganglionic fibers then hitchhike on the auriculotemporal branch of V3. Learn more
Which enteric plexus primarily controls gastrointestinal motility?
Hypogastric plexus
Celiac plexus
Submucosal (Meissner) plexus
Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus
The myenteric plexus, located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers of the GI tract, regulates motility and peristalsis. The submucosal plexus controls secretion and blood flow. Celiac and hypogastric plexuses are autonomic but not intrinsic to the gut wall. Learn more
Activation of ?2-adrenergic receptors on uterine smooth muscle leads to:
Decreased cAMP levels
Contraction of the uterus
Relaxation of the uterus
Increased prostaglandin release
?2-adrenergic receptors couple to Gs proteins, increasing cAMP and causing smooth muscle relaxation, including in the uterus. Agonists like ritodrine exploit this effect to delay preterm labor. Activation does not directly increase prostaglandin release. Learn more
Which second messenger is elevated by Gq-coupled receptor activation?
IP3 and DAG
cAMP
cGMP
cCMP
Gq-coupled receptors activate phospholipase C to cleave PIP2 producing inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). IP3 releases Ca2+ from the endoplasmic reticulum, while DAG activates protein kinase C. cAMP is elevated by Gs, and cGMP by guanylate cyclase. Learn more
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers innervating the adrenal medulla originate primarily from which spinal segments?
L1 - L2
T5 - T9 (greater splanchnic nerve)
S2 - S4
T1 - T4
Preganglionic fibers from T5 - T9 form the greater splanchnic nerve, synapsing on chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla, which release epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. This pathway bypasses ganglionic synapses in the sympathetic chain. Learn more
Which adrenergic receptor subtype couples to Gq and increases intracellular calcium in vascular smooth muscle?
?1-adrenergic receptor
?2-adrenergic receptor
?3-adrenergic receptor
?1-adrenergic receptor
?1-adrenergic receptors couple to Gq proteins, activating phospholipase C, which generates IP3 and DAG and raises intracellular Ca2+ to cause smooth muscle contraction. ?2 couples to Gi, ?1 and ?3 couple to Gs. Learn more
Which cotransmitter is often released alongside norepinephrine from sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
Glutamate
Enkephalin
Substance P
Neuropeptide Y
Neuropeptide Y is commonly co-stored and co-released with norepinephrine from sympathetic varicosities, modulating vascular tone and neurotransmission. Substance P is more associated with sensory neurons. Enkephalin and glutamate have other CNS roles. Learn more
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Study Outcomes

  1. Analyze Thoracolumbar Outflow -

    Understand the anatomical origins and pathways of the sympathetic thoracolumbar outflow and its role in autonomic regulation.

  2. Differentiate Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Pathways -

    Distinguish between the sympathetic nervous system quiz components and parasympathetic nervous system trivia to clarify their contrasting effects on target organs.

  3. Interpret ANS Physiological Responses -

    Apply ANS physiology questions to real-life scenarios, evaluating how autonomic adjustments affect heart rate, digestion, and pupil size.

  4. Identify Key Neurotransmitters -

    Recall major neurotransmitters like acetylcholine and norepinephrine and explain their synaptic roles in autonomic ganglia and effector tissues.

  5. Assess Your ANS Quiz Mastery -

    Use feedback from the autonomic nervous system quiz to pinpoint areas for further study and reinforce your ANS knowledge base.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Dual Divisions of the ANS -

    The autonomic nervous system consists of two complementary branches: the sympathetic nervous system, which primes the "fight-or-flight" response, and the parasympathetic nervous system, responsible for "rest-and-digest" activities. Understanding their antagonistic actions is foundational for any autonomic nervous system quiz. Keep in mind that balance between these divisions underlies cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive homeostasis.

  2. Thoracolumbar Outflow & Sympathetic Pathways -

    Sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate from T1 - L2 in the spinal cord, forming the thoracolumbar outflow that synapses in paravertebral chain or collateral ganglia. Remember the mnemonic "T1”L2: Think Large Fight-Flight" to recall the spinal segments and their role in a sympathetic nervous system quiz. Postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine onto α- and β-adrenergic receptors in target organs.

  3. Craniosacral Outflow & Parasympathetic Routes -

    Parasympathetic fibers arise from cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X and sacral segments S2 - S4, often tested in parasympathetic nervous system trivia. Use "3, 7, 9, 10 save 2 to 4" as a quick-memory phrase for craniosacral outflow origins. These fibers release acetylcholine onto muscarinic receptors to conserve energy and promote digestion.

  4. Key Neurotransmitters and Receptors -

    All preganglionic ANS fibers use acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors, while sympathetic postganglionic fibers typically release norepinephrine at α- and β-adrenergic receptors and parasympathetic fibers use acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. A common study trick is "Norepinephrine's ABCs: α1, β1, β2" to recall receptor subtypes. This knowledge frequently appears in ANS physiology questions and clinical pharmacology scenarios.

  5. Homeostatic Integration & Clinical Correlates -

    Baroreceptor and chemoreceptor reflex arcs illustrate how the ANS maintains blood pressure and pH, central topics in many autonomic nervous system quizzes. Practice with case-based ANS physiology questions, such as predicting heart rate changes after carotid massage. Recognizing dysautonomia presentations - like orthostatic hypotension - reinforces your grasp on real-world applications.

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