Unlock hundreds more features
Save your Quiz to the Dashboard
View and Export Results
Use AI to Create Quizzes and Analyse Results

OR
Sign inSign in with Facebook
Sign inSign in with Google
Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Take the Free NLE Practice Quiz and Ace Your Nursing Board Exam

Ready for nursing board exam practice? Take our NLE exam prep quiz and test your skills!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art coral backdrop featuring free NLE quiz to test nursing exam skills find improvement areas boost confidence

Calling all future RN rockstars! Ready to test your skills? Our free NLE practice quiz is the ultimate nle practice challenge designed to sharpen your nursing board exam practice and boost your nle exam prep. Dive into a targeted nursing NLE practice test that pinpoints strengths and spots gaps. Pair your quiz with our NLE practice exam or elevate prep using the Nursing Board Exam Practice Test . Feel confidence grow with every question. Think you can ace this NLE quiz? Click "Start Now" and kick off your path to exam success!

What is the normal range for adult systolic blood pressure?
90-120 mmHg
80-100 mmHg
60-80 mmHg
120-140 mmHg
The normal adult systolic blood pressure range is between 90 and 120 mmHg, which reflects the pressure during ventricular contraction. Readings above this range can indicate hypertension, while readings below may suggest hypotension. Maintaining systolic pressure within this range is vital for adequate organ perfusion. For more information, visit American Heart Association.
What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult?
40-60 beats per minute
100-120 beats per minute
60-100 beats per minute
120-140 beats per minute
The normal resting heart rate for adults is considered to be between 60 and 100 beats per minute. Rates below this may indicate bradycardia, while rates above may indicate tachycardia. Monitoring heart rate helps assess cardiovascular health. See American Heart Association for details.
Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation?
Right atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
Left atrium
The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it into the aorta for systemic distribution. Its muscular walls generate the high pressure needed to circulate blood throughout the body. Dysfunction in this chamber impacts overall cardiac output. Learn more at NCBI.
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in the blood?
Clot blood vessels
Regulate blood glucose
Fight infections
Transport oxygen to tissues
Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells responsible for binding and transporting oxygen from the lungs to body tissues. It also helps carry carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation. Proper hemoglobin function is critical for cellular metabolism. More information: NCBI.
What is the first step in the nursing process?
Evaluation
Planning
Assessment
Diagnosis
Assessment is the initial step of the nursing process, where data is collected through history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests. Accurate assessment forms the basis for nursing diagnoses and care planning. Skipping or improperly performing this step can lead to incorrect interventions. For guidelines, see American Nurses Association.
What is the normal respiratory rate for a resting adult?
30-40 breaths per minute
6-10 breaths per minute
12-20 breaths per minute
20-30 breaths per minute
A normal respiratory rate for healthy adults at rest is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates below may indicate respiratory depression, while rates above suggest tachypnea. Monitoring respiration helps assess ventilation adequacy. See NHLBI for more information.
Which organ is primarily responsible for insulin production?
Kidneys
Liver
Pancreas
Adrenal glands
The pancreas contains beta cells in the islets of Langerhans that synthesize and secrete insulin, a hormone regulation blood glucose levels. Failure of insulin production leads to diabetes mellitus. Understanding this function is key in diabetes management. More at World Health Organization.
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin C
Vitamin B12
Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and K, which are absorbed along with dietary fats and stored in the body's fatty tissues. Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone health. Water-soluble vitamins like C and B types are not stored in large amounts. See NIH Office of Dietary Supplements.
What is the standard purpose of hand hygiene in nursing practice?
Sterilize surgical equipment
Moisturize skin
Remove medication residue
Prevent transmission of pathogens
Hand hygiene is a critical standard precaution in nursing to remove transient microorganisms and prevent the spread of infection between patients and healthcare providers. It reduces healthcare-associated infections significantly. Proper technique includes using soap and water or alcohol-based hand rubs. See CDC Hand Hygiene.
Which type of question is considered a therapeutic communication technique?
Open-ended question
Leading question
Multiple-choice question
Close-ended question
Open-ended questions encourage patients to express thoughts and feelings in detail, promoting dialogue and therapeutic rapport. Close-ended questions limit responses to yes/no answers and may not capture patient concerns fully. Effective communication is essential for patient-centered care. More at NCBI.
What is the normal oral temperature range for a healthy adult?
35.0-36.0 °C
37.8-39.0 °C
36.5-37.5 °C
38.0-40.0 °C
A normal adult oral temperature typically ranges between 36.5 and 37.5°C. Temperatures above this range may indicate fever, while lower readings may reflect hypothermia. Accurate measurement is vital for assessing patient status. See NICE Guidelines.
Which injection route is administered into the fatty layer beneath the skin?
Intramuscular
Intradermal
Intravenous
Subcutaneous
Subcutaneous injections are delivered into the adipose tissue layer under the dermis, allowing slower absorption than intramuscular and intravenous routes. Common sites include the abdomen and thigh. Technique and site selection prevent complications like lipodystrophy. More at CDC Vaccine Administration.
Which route of administration provides the fastest drug absorption?
Intramuscular
Intravenous
Oral
Subcutaneous
Intravenous (IV) administration delivers medication directly into the bloodstream, resulting in immediate bioavailability and rapid onset of action. Oral and parenteral routes undergo absorption processes that delay effects. IV use is crucial in emergencies for fast therapeutic response. For pharmacokinetics, see NCBI.
What is the primary action of loop diuretics like furosemide?
Increase urine output by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle
Reduce heart rate by blocking beta receptors
Lower blood sugar by increasing insulin release
Decrease inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandins
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride cotransport, promoting diuresis and fluid removal. They are potent diuretics used in conditions like edema and hypertension. Monitoring electrolytes is essential during therapy. More at UpToDate.
Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin crucial for synthesizing clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. Deficiency can lead to bleeding disorders. Newborns often receive vitamin K prophylactically to prevent hemorrhagic disease. For details, see NCBI.
What is the main purpose of performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact?
To reduce the risk of pathogen transmission
To sterilize the hands
To comply with hospital policy
To improve patient satisfaction
Hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections by removing or killing pathogens on the hands. It protects both patients and healthcare workers. Compliance with proper technique is emphasized in all clinical settings. See WHO Hand Hygiene for guidelines.
An arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3- 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
A pH of 7.30 indicates acidemia, and an elevated PaCO2 of 50 mmHg points to CO2 retention as the primary cause. Normal HCO3- confirms no metabolic component, identifying respiratory acidosis. Causes include hypoventilation and respiratory failure. For ABG interpretation, see Anaesthesia Journal.
Which stage of a pressure ulcer is characterized by partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis?
Stage I
Stage II
Stage IV
Stage III
Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness loss of skin presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. Intact or ruptured blisters also qualify. Early identification and management can prevent progression. Refer to NPUAP for staging guidelines.
What is the preferred site for intramuscular injection in adults?
Ventrogluteal site
Deltoid site
Dorsogluteal site
Vastus lateralis site
The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in adults due to its proximity to major blood vessels and nerves, and it provides the thickest muscle mass. It reduces the risk of nerve or vascular injury. Proper landmarking ensures safe administration. For technique, see CDC Immunization.
Which electrolyte is the primary intracellular cation?
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Magnesium
Potassium is the most abundant intracellular cation and is essential for maintaining cell membrane potential and normal muscle and nerve function. Its imbalance can cause cardiac arrhythmias and neuromuscular issues. Monitoring levels is critical in many clinical scenarios. For more, see National Kidney Foundation.
What is the mechanism of action of furosemide?
Inhibits carbonic anhydrase
Inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle
Stimulates sodium-potassium pump
Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of sodium, chloride, and water. It is used in edema and hypertension management. Close monitoring of electrolytes is required. Visit UpToDate for details.
Which type of precaution is required for a patient with suspected tuberculosis?
Airborne precautions
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions
Standard precautions only
Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns, which can remain suspended in air. Airborne precautions include a negative pressure room and N95 respirator for healthcare workers. Droplet and contact precautions are inadequate for TB. Guidelines: CDC TB Guidelines.
Which laboratory test is a reliable indicator of chronic nutritional status?
Serum albumin
White blood cell count
Blood glucose
Serum potassium
Serum albumin has a long half-life and reflects protein stores over weeks, making it a useful indicator of chronic nutritional status. Low levels may indicate malnutrition or chronic illness. However, albumin can be affected by hydration and liver function. See AMA for more on nutritional assessment.
Which type of insulin is typically administered before meals for rapid glycemic control?
NPH insulin
Insulin glargine
Insulin detemir
Regular insulin
Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin with onset in 30-60 minutes and peak action around 2-4 hours, making it suitable before meals to control postprandial blood glucose. Long-acting formulations like glargine provide basal coverage. Proper timing prevents hypoglycemia. For dosing, see American Diabetes Association.
How many drops per minute are delivered when infusing 1,000 mL of fluid over 8 hours with a drip factor of 20 gtt/mL?
42 gtt/min
33 gtt/min
25 gtt/min
50 gtt/min
To calculate drops per minute: (Total volume × Drip factor) ÷ Total minutes = (1000 mL × 20 gtt/mL) ÷ (8 × 60) = 20000 ÷ 480 ? 42 gtt/min. Accurate calculation is crucial for proper fluid management. Always round to the nearest whole drop. See RegisteredNursing.org.
Which ECG change is commonly seen with hyperkalemia?
ST-segment depressions
Peaked T waves
Prolonged QT interval
U waves
Hyperkalemia can cause characteristic peaked (tented) T waves due to accelerated repolarization. As levels rise, PR prolongation and QRS widening may follow. Early detection on ECG guides urgent treatment. More at EFastNurse.
Which solution is isotonic to human plasma?
3% sodium chloride
0.45% sodium chloride
0.9% sodium chloride
5% dextrose in water
0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) has an osmolarity similar to plasma, making it isotonic. Hypotonic (0.45% NaCl) and hypertonic (3% NaCl, D5W) solutions cause fluid shifts. Selecting appropriate tonicity is essential in fluid therapy. For more, see NCBI.
Which medication can increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin when taken concurrently?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Carbamazepine
Rifampin
Vitamin K supplement
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can potentiate warfarin's effect by inhibiting warfarin metabolism, increasing bleeding risk. Conversely, rifampin and carbamazepine induce hepatic enzymes, reducing warfarin levels. Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin's action. Drug interactions should be monitored closely. See FDA Drug Interactions.
According to Maslow's hierarchy, which need is most basic?
Social needs
Self-actualization needs
Physiological needs
Safety needs
Physiological needs - such as food, water, and shelter - are at the base of Maslow's hierarchy and must be met before higher-level needs (safety, social, esteem, self-actualization). Unmet basic needs impede motivation toward growth. This framework guides holistic patient care. For overview, see Simply Psychology.
When delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel, what must the registered nurse ensure?
That the task is within the scope of nursing diagnosis
That the person is a licensed provider
That the person is competent to perform the task
That no supervision is required
The registered nurse must ensure unlicensed personnel are competent and authorized to perform delegated tasks safely. Accountability remains with the RN even when tasks are delegated. The RN should also provide appropriate supervision and evaluation. See NCSBN delegation guidelines at NCSBN.
What is the normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) range for adults?
30-60 mg/dL
50-90 mg/dL
2-10 mg/dL
7-20 mg/dL
The adult normal BUN range is approximately 7-20 mg/dL, reflecting renal excretory function and protein metabolism. Elevated BUN can indicate renal impairment or dehydration. Low BUN may be seen in overhydration or malnutrition. More at NCBI.
Which symptom is most indicative of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?
Constipation
Weight gain
Dry mouth
Tremors and sweating
Hypoglycemia often presents with autonomic symptoms like tremors, sweating, and palpitations due to catecholamine release. Other signs include confusion and seizures if severe. Recognizing early symptoms is critical for prompt treatment. See American Diabetes Association for management guidelines.
An arterial blood gas shows pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and HCO3- 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
An elevated pH (alkalemia) and decreased PaCO2 indicate primary respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. The normal HCO3- shows no metabolic compensation has occurred yet. Common causes include anxiety and fever. For ABG analysis, see Life in the Fast Lane.
A patient has a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. Which sign or symptom is most likely?
Polyuria
Confusion
Bradycardia
Hyperreflexia
Hyponatremia (serum Na+ <135 mEq/L) can lead to central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, headache, and seizures due to cerebral edema. Cardiac and reflex changes are less directly related to sodium levels. Monitoring neurologic status is essential. See NKF.
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?
Inhibit calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle
Increase excretion of sodium and water
Block beta-adrenergic receptors
Block conversion of angiotensin I to II
ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. This results in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone production, reducing blood pressure. They are used in hypertension and heart failure. Further reading: American College of Cardiology.
What is the key difference between delirium and dementia?
Dementia has acute onset; delirium is chronic
Both have similar timelines but different causes
Delirium has acute onset and fluctuating courses; dementia is chronic and progressive
Only dementia affects memory
Delirium typically develops rapidly over hours to days with fluctuating consciousness, whereas dementia is a chronic, progressive decline in cognitive function. Delirium often has a reversible cause like infection. Accurate differentiation guides appropriate treatment. See NICE Dementia Guidelines.
Which precaution is most appropriate for a patient with neutropenia?
Neutropenic precautions (protective environment)
Contact precautions
Standard precautions only
Droplet precautions
Neutropenic precautions aim to protect immunocompromised patients from infections by minimizing exposure to pathogens. This includes strict hand hygiene, limiting visitors, and potentially using protective isolation. Standard precautions alone are insufficient. For details, see CDC Guidelines.
Which principle of bioethics emphasizes respecting a patient's right to make their own healthcare decisions?
Justice
Autonomy
Nonmaleficence
Beneficence
Autonomy involves recognizing and respecting an individual's right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare. Nurses support patient autonomy by providing information and ensuring voluntary consent. This principle is critical in ethical practice. Read more at AAAS.
What does the 'PES' format in nursing diagnosis stand for?
Plan, Evaluation, Services
Patient, Education, Support
Problem, Etiology, Signs/Symptoms
Preparation, Execution, Summary
The PES format structures nursing diagnoses by stating the Problem (nursing diagnosis), Etiology (related factors), and Signs/Symptoms (defining characteristics). This ensures clarity and specificity in care planning. It is widely used in nursing documentation. For documentation standards, see ANA.
On assessment, normal tactile fremitus is described as which of the following?
Vibration localized to the epigastrium
Increased vibration on one side only
Symmetrical vibrations felt on both sides of the chest
Absence of vibrations over the chest
Normal tactile fremitus is felt as symmetrical vibrations across corresponding areas of the chest when a patient repeats a phrase like 'ninety-nine'. Asymmetry may indicate consolidation or pleural effusion. Accurate assessment aids respiratory diagnosis. See CHEST for clinical techniques.
What is the highest possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
15
12
3
10
The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye, verbal, and motor responses with a maximum score of 15 indicating full consciousness. A score below 8 often suggests coma or severe injury. It is essential in neurological assessments. For scale details, see Trauma.org.
Which IV medication is incompatible with dextrose solutions due to precipitation?
Vancomycin
Morphine
Phenytoin
Furosemide
Phenytoin precipitates in dextrose solutions due to its alkaline pH, risking catheter occlusion. It should be administered only in normal saline. Understanding compatibility prevents adverse events. For compatibility charts, see Pharmacist.com.
Which pain assessment tool is appropriate for assessing pain in a nonverbal infant?
FLACC scale
Wong-Baker FACES
Visual analog scale
Numeric rating scale
The FLACC scale assesses Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability in nonverbal patients, such as infants. Scores range from 0 to 10 based on behavioral observations. It is validated for pediatric pain assessment. See Pediatric Pain for details.
When teaching a patient on warfarin therapy, which dietary advice is most appropriate?
Restrict all fruit intake
Increase vitamin D - rich foods
Maintain a consistent intake of leafy green vegetables
Avoid all protein-rich foods
Leafy greens are high in vitamin K, which can alter warfarin efficacy. Consistency in vitamin K intake helps maintain stable INR levels. Sudden dietary changes can increase bleeding or clotting risks. For patient education, see ACC.
What infusion pump rate (mL/hr) is required to infuse 500 mL of a solution over 4 hours?
100 mL/hr
125 mL/hr
200 mL/hr
150 mL/hr
To determine the infusion rate: Total volume ÷ Total time = 500 mL ÷ 4 hr = 125 mL/hr. Accurate pump settings ensure proper fluid administration. Always verify calculations and pump settings. See FDA Pumps Guidance.
Which organization's 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' is widely adopted in healthcare settings?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
American Nurses Association
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
World Health Organization
The WHO introduced the 'My Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' framework to guide healthcare workers on critical times for hand hygiene. It focuses on before and after patient contact and procedures. Adoption improves compliance and reduces infections. Learn more at WHO.
Which task cannot be delegated to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
Provide wound care
Perform initial comprehensive patient assessment
Administer oral medications
Measure vital signs
Initial comprehensive assessments require RN-level education and scope of practice, involving data interpretation and nursing diagnoses. LPNs can perform routine assessments and provide direct care under supervision. Delegation must align with state regulations. See NCSBN.
What is the function of the water seal chamber in a chest tube drainage system?
Collects pleural fluid
Measures negative pressure
Prevents air from re-entering the pleural space
Filters bacteria
The water seal chamber allows one-way exit of air from the pleural space while preventing re-entry, maintaining negative intrapleural pressure necessary for lung expansion. It does not collect fluid - that is the function of the collection chamber. Proper function is vital to avoid pneumothorax. For tube management, see ATS Journals.
What is the primary purpose of applying PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in mechanical ventilation?
Reduce airway resistance
Decrease cardiac output
Prevent alveolar collapse and improve oxygenation
Increase respiratory rate
PEEP maintains positive pressure in the lungs at end expiration, preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas exchange and oxygenation, especially in ARDS patients. Excessive PEEP can reduce venous return and cardiac output. Proper setting requires careful monitoring. For guidelines, see ARDSNet.
An ABG shows pH 7.25, PaCO2 28 mmHg, and HCO3- 13 mEq/L. What is the correct interpretation?
Primary metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Primary respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
Primary metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
A pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis. Low HCO3- (13) suggests primary metabolic acidosis. The decreased PaCO2 reflects respiratory compensation by hyperventilation. A mixed disorder would have conflicting signs. For ABG interpretation details, see ClinicalKey.
Which regulation primarily governs the privacy and security of patients' electronic health records?
FERPA
HIPAA
OSHA
HITECH Act
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets national standards for protecting sensitive patient health information in electronic and physical form. The HITECH Act strengthens HIPAA's enforcement, but HIPAA remains the primary regulation. FERPA deals with educational records. For details, visit HHS.gov.
What does the 'first-pass effect' refer to in pharmacokinetics?
Initial distribution of drug to tissues before entering blood
Metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
First dose providing therapeutic effect
Drug excretion via the kidneys
The first-pass effect describes the hepatic metabolism of certain orally administered drugs before they reach systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability. Drugs heavily metabolized this way often require higher oral doses or alternate routes. Understanding this concept guides dosing decisions. More at Pharmacology Corner.
In disaster triage, which color tag indicates immediate (life-threatening) priority?
Yellow
Black
Red
Green
Red tags in triage systems denote immediate priority for patients with life-threatening injuries who require rapid intervention to survive. Yellow indicates delayed care, green is for minor injuries, and black is for deceased or non-salvageable patients. Proper tagging optimizes resource allocation. See FEMA.
What is an advance directive?
A report of a patient's vital signs
A discharge instruction sheet
A form used to bill insurance
A legal document stating a patient's healthcare preferences
An advance directive is a legal document in which individuals outline their preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their decisions. It includes living wills and durable power of attorney for healthcare. It guides providers and respects patient autonomy. Learn more at American Medical Association.
0
{"name":"What is the normal range for adult systolic blood pressure?", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"What is the normal range for adult systolic blood pressure?, What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult?, Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}

Study Outcomes

  1. Analyze NLE-Style Questions -

    Practice with realistic scenarios from our nursing NLE practice test to strengthen critical thinking and decision-making aligned with actual exam formats.

  2. Identify Strengths and Weaknesses -

    Use detailed feedback from the NLE quiz to pinpoint subject areas needing improvement for targeted nursing board exam practice.

  3. Interpret Performance Feedback -

    Review score breakdowns to inform your nle exam prep and focus study plans on the most challenging topics.

  4. Apply Time Management Strategies -

    Simulate timed conditions to enhance pacing skills, ensuring you can complete questions efficiently on test day.

  5. Track Progress Over Time -

    Monitor score trends across multiple attempts to measure growth in your nle practice and adjust your study approach.

  6. Build Exam Confidence -

    Engage with our free NLE practice quiz to reduce test anxiety and boost readiness for the nursing board exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Mastering ADPIE -

    The nursing process mnemonic ADPIE (Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation) is the backbone of clinical decision-making and features prominently in nle practice questions. Use the phrase "All Dogs Play In Evening" to recall each step methodically and apply it to patient scenarios. The American Nurses Association recommends this structured approach for clear documentation and improved patient outcomes.

  2. Medication Dosage Calculations -

    Accurate dosage calculation is critical in nursing board exam practice and can be tackled using the formula: (Desired Dose / Stock Strength) × Stock Volume. For example, to give 500 mg when the vial contains 250 mg/mL, calculate (500/250)×1 mL = 2 mL. Many nursing schools and NCLEX prep guides use this equation to simulate real-world dosing in their nle exam prep resources.

  3. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance -

    Understanding normal electrolyte ranges (e.g., Na❺ 135 - 145 mEq/L, K❺ 3.5 - 5 mEq/L) is often tested in an nle practice test to assess your critical thinking. Use the mnemonic "Salt Loves Potassium" to link sodium and potassium balance in fluid shifts. Johns Hopkins Medicine highlights fluid volume status assessments - like checking for edema and skin turgor - to reinforce these concepts.

  4. Vital Signs Interpretation -

    Recognizing normal and abnormal vital sign ranges (BP 120/80 mmHg, HR 60 - 100 bpm, RR 12 - 20 breaths/min) is a staple of any nursing NLE practice test. Practice scenarios on orthostatic hypotension (drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic) to sharpen your assessment skills. The American Heart Association provides reliable tables and guidelines that mirror exam-style questions.

  5. Pharmacology Classes & Side Effects -

    Grouping drugs by class - like ACE inhibitors for hypertension or loop diuretics such as furosemide - helps you recall common side effects (e.g., hypokalemia with furosemide). Create flashcards that list drug name, mechanism, and adverse reactions for quick review during nle exam prep. Peer-reviewed pharmacology journals and university pharmacopeias offer concise charts perfect for rapid memorization.

Make a Quiz (FREE) Copy & Edit This Quiz Create a Quiz with AI

Human Anatomy & Medicine Quizzes

Powered by: Quiz Maker