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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Free Cardiac Nursing Quiz: Test Your Expertise

Challenge Your Skills with Cardiology Nursing Questions

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper heart and stethoscope cutout quiz scene on dark blue background with nursing icons, score tracker, confidence boost.

Calling all RNs! Think you can conquer cardiology nursing? Our free cardiac quiz invites you to sharpen skills in anatomy, EKG interpretation, and patient care. Need an extra boost? Review key cardiology nursing questions, then tackle our cardiac nursing questions to gauge your readiness. Next, dive into a quick cardiac assessment quiz and face nursing cardiac quiz challenges from basics to advanced scenarios. Track your score, compare results, and reinforce concepts with fun cardiac nursing trivia. Ready to prove your expertise? Start the cardiac nursing test now and see how high you score!

Which structure is known as the heart's natural pacemaker?
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of His
The sinoatrial (SA) node initiates electrical impulses that set the rate and rhythm of the heartbeat. It is located in the right atrium and typically fires at 60 - 100 impulses per minute. The AV node and conduction pathways transmit but do not originate the primary pacemaker signal. NCBI
In a normal ECG, what is the expected duration of the PR interval?
0.04 to 0.08 seconds
0.30 to 0.40 seconds
0.20 to 0.30 seconds
0.12 to 0.20 seconds
The PR interval represents atrial depolarization and conduction through the AV node, normally lasting 120 - 200 milliseconds. Prolongation beyond 0.20 seconds indicates a first-degree AV block. Shortening below 0.12 seconds is uncommon and suggests pre-excitation. AHA Journals
Which heart sound corresponds to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves?
S3
S2
S1
S4
S1 is the first heart sound and is produced by closure of the atrioventricular (mitral and tricuspid) valves at the beginning of systole. S2 follows and is due to closure of the semilunar (aortic and pulmonic) valves. Abnormal S3 or S4 sounds may indicate pathology. NCBI
Which electrolyte is most critical for myocardial contraction?
Calcium
Potassium
Sodium
Magnesium
Calcium influx into myocardial cells during phase 2 of the action potential triggers actin - myosin cross-bridge formation and contraction. Sodium and potassium are key for depolarization and repolarization, respectively, but calcium is directly responsible for contraction. Magnesium modulates calcium channels but is not the primary contractile trigger. Merck Manuals
What is the normal range for an adult resting heart rate?
30 - 50 beats per minute
40 - 60 beats per minute
100 - 120 beats per minute
60 - 100 beats per minute
Resting heart rate in a healthy adult typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates below 60 may indicate bradycardia, while rates above 100 suggest tachycardia. Physical fitness, medications, and autonomic tone can influence resting rate. American Heart Association
In cardiac physiology, what does 'preload' refer to?
Aortic pressure against which the heart ejects
Myocardial contractility
End-diastolic ventricular volume
End-systolic ventricular volume
Preload is the stretch on the ventricular fibers at end-diastole, approximated by end-diastolic volume or pressure. It influences stroke volume via the Frank - Starling mechanism. Afterload, by contrast, is the pressure the ventricle must overcome to eject blood. CV Physiology
Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure by what mechanism?
Blocking calcium channels
Inhibiting angiotensin-converting enzyme
Stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors
Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
Beta-blockers competitively block beta-1 (and sometimes beta-2) receptors, reducing heart rate, contractility, and renin release. This decreases myocardial oxygen demand and lowers blood pressure. ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers act via different pathways. Mayo Clinic
Which clinical finding is most indicative of left-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary crackles
Hepatomegaly
Jugular venous distention
Peripheral edema
Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as crackles or rales on auscultation. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention are more characteristic of right-sided failure. Hepatomegaly occurs when venous congestion affects the liver in right-sided failure. American Heart Association
A total cholesterol level above which threshold is considered high?
>240 mg/dL
>180 mg/dL
>200 mg/dL
>300 mg/dL
Total cholesterol over 240 mg/dL is classified as high, indicating increased cardiovascular risk. Levels between 200 - 239 mg/dL are borderline high, while under 200 mg/dL is desirable. Lipid management should incorporate diet, exercise, and potentially statins. CDC
Which medication is recommended first for acute chest pain suspected to be myocardial infarction?
Morphine
Aspirin
Heparin
Nitroglycerin
Administering aspirin (chewed) is the first priority to inhibit platelet aggregation in suspected MI. It improves survival and should be given immediately unless contraindicated. Nitroglycerin, morphine, and heparin may follow based on clinical status. ACC
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?
Gender
Age
Family history
Hypertension
Hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that can be managed through lifestyle changes and medications. Nonmodifiable factors include age, family history, and gender. Controlling blood pressure reduces the risk of coronary events. WHO
What is the normal ejection fraction (EF) range in a healthy adult?
55 - 70%
40 - 50%
30 - 40%
70 - 85%
Normal left ventricular ejection fraction ranges from 55% to 70%, indicating efficient systolic function. EF below 40% suggests systolic dysfunction, while values between 41% - 54% are borderline. EF over 75% may occur in hyperdynamic states. Mayo Clinic
On ECG, peaked T waves are most suggestive of which electrolyte disturbance?
Hypomagnesemia
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia
Peaked, narrow-based T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. As potassium levels rise, PR interval prolongs and QRS widens. Hypokalemia typically produces U waves and flattened T waves. UpToDate
ST-segment elevation diagnostic of STEMI must appear in at least how many contiguous leads?
Two contiguous leads
Four leads
Three separate leads
One lead
ST-segment elevation in two contiguous leads is required to diagnose STEMI. Contiguous leads face the same myocardial region (e.g., II, III, aVF for inferior wall). Single-lead changes without corresponding contiguous lead support are insufficient. ACC
Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?
Myoglobin
Troponin I
CK-MB
LDH-1
Cardiac troponins (I and T) are highly specific for myocardial injury and remain elevated for days after MI. CK-MB rises earlier but is less specific than troponin. Myoglobin and LDH isoenzymes lack specificity to cardiac tissue. AHA Journals
ACE inhibitors reduce afterload by what mechanism?
Inhibiting conversion of angiotensin I to II
Antagonizing calcium channels
Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
Increasing nitric oxide release
ACE inhibitors block the angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Reduced angiotensin II lowers systemic vascular resistance (afterload). They also decrease aldosterone, aiding volume control. National Kidney Foundation
Central venous pressure (CVP) primarily reflects pressure in which cardiac chamber?
Left ventricle
Right atrium
Right ventricle
Left atrium
CVP measures the filling pressure of the right atrium and systemic venous return. It informs right ventricular preload and fluid status. Left atrial pressure is estimated by pulmonary artery wedge pressure. CV Physiology
Amiodarone is classified as which class of antiarrhythmic?
Class IV
Class III
Class II
Class I
Amiodarone prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential and is categorized as a Class III antiarrhythmic. It also has effects of all four classes but is primarily used for refractory ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. Class I agents block sodium channels. UpToDate
An S3 gallop in an adult patient most often indicates what condition?
Aortic stenosis
Pericarditis
Myocardial ischemia
Heart failure with volume overload
An S3 gallop occurs during rapid ventricular filling and is often heard in volume overload states like systolic heart failure. It is less common in healthy adults but may be normal in children. Aortic stenosis and ischemia typically produce murmurs or S4, not S3. NCBI
What is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
Bradycardia
Visual disturbances (yellow halos)
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Visual changes such as yellow or green halos around lights often precede cardiac and gastrointestinal symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia may also occur but visual disturbances are more specific early signs. Hypokalemia predisposes to toxicity rather than being a sign. Mayo Clinic
Which class of medication is contraindicated in second-degree AV block without a pacemaker?
Beta-blockers
Diuretics
Statins
ACE inhibitors
Beta-blockers slow AV nodal conduction and can exacerbate second-degree AV block in the absence of pacing. ACE inhibitors, diuretics, and statins do not depress AV conduction to the same extent. Patients with block may require temporary pacing if bradycardic. AHA Journals
In cardiogenic shock, which hemodynamic parameter is typically increased?
Cardiac output
Stroke volume
Systemic vascular resistance
Mixed venous oxygen saturation
Cardiogenic shock is characterized by low cardiac output and compensatory vasoconstriction leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Stroke volume and mixed venous oxygen saturation decrease due to poor perfusion. These findings guide inotropic and vasodilator therapy. UpToDate
What is the therapeutic INR range for a patient with a mechanical mitral valve?
1.5 - 2.5
2.0 - 3.0
2.5 - 3.5
3.5 - 4.5
Patients with mechanical mitral valves require higher anticoagulation, generally targeting an INR of 2.5 - 3.5. Aortic valves typically require INR 2.0 - 3.0 unless additional risk factors exist. Proper INR monitoring reduces thromboembolic risk. ACC
Which intervention is first-line for pain in acute pericarditis?
NSAIDs
Beta-blockers
Opioids
ACE inhibitors
NSAIDs reduce inflammation and relieve pain in acute pericarditis and are considered first-line therapy. Colchicine may be added to reduce recurrence. Opioids do not treat the underlying inflammation. ESC Guidelines
A wide QRS complex (>120 ms) tachycardia is most consistent with which rhythm?
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
Ventricular tachycardia
Sinus tachycardia
A QRS duration over 120 milliseconds in a regular tachycardia is highly suggestive of ventricular tachycardia rather than a supraventricular origin with aberrancy. VT is life-threatening and requires immediate management. Atrial arrhythmias typically have narrow QRS complexes unless there is bundle branch block. ACC
Which formula calculates cardiac output?
Stroke volume × systemic vascular resistance
Preload × afterload
Heart rate × stroke volume
Mean arterial pressure × heart rate
Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, calculated as heart rate multiplied by stroke volume. It reflects overall cardiac performance and is used to guide therapy in shock and heart failure. SVR and pressures help determine afterload. CV Physiology
Nitroprusside reduces afterload by which mechanism?
Beta-2 receptor agonism
ACE inhibition
Calcium channel blockade
Direct nitric oxide donor causing arterial and venous dilation
Nitroprusside releases nitric oxide, causing direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle in both arteries and veins, thereby reducing afterload and preload. It is used in hypertensive emergencies and acute heart failure. Toxicity includes cyanide accumulation. UpToDate
Pulsus paradoxus is most characteristic of which condition?
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Cardiac tamponade
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Pulsus paradoxus - an inspiratory drop in systolic blood pressure greater than 10 mmHg - is a hallmark of cardiac tamponade. It occurs because increased intrathoracic pressure further impedes ventricular filling in the presence of pericardial fluid. It can also be seen in severe asthma or COPD exacerbations. NCBI
First-line management for symptomatic bradycardia is:
Synchronized cardioversion
Atropine intravenous push
IV amiodarone
Adenosine rapid IV push
Atropine is the first-line agent for symptomatic bradycardia, as it blocks vagal tone at the AV node, increasing heart rate. If atropine is ineffective, transcutaneous pacing or dopamine/epinephrine infusion may be used. Adenosine treats SVT, not bradycardia. AHA Journals
Clear lung fields, hypotension, and jugular venous distention suggest infarction of which coronary territory?
Left anterior descending
Right coronary with inferior MI
Left circumflex
Right ventricular
Right ventricular infarction often presents with hypotension, clear lung fields, and elevated jugular venous pressure due to impaired RV output. LAD infarction yields anterior changes with pulmonary edema. LCx infarction affects lateral leads but not specifically RV function. NCBI PMC
The primary hemodynamic benefit of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is:
Increased heart rate
Reduced preload by venous pooling
Increased coronary perfusion during diastole
Direct augmentation of stroke volume
An IABP inflates during diastole to augment diastolic pressure and improve coronary blood flow, then deflates just before systole to reduce afterload. It does not directly increase heart rate or reduce preload by venous pooling. Its main effect is mechanical circulatory support. Healio
A patient post - heart transplant presents with fever and graft dysfunction. These are signs of what type of rejection?
Acute cellular rejection
Hyperacute rejection
Antibody-mediated rejection
Chronic rejection
Acute cellular rejection typically occurs weeks to months post-transplant and presents with fever, graft dysfunction, and inflammatory infiltrates. Hyperacute occurs minutes to hours due to preformed antibodies. Chronic rejection develops over years with fibrosis. NCBI
Positive inotropic agents shift the Frank - Starling curve in which direction?
Upward and rightward
Upward and leftward
Downward and rightward
Downward and leftward
Positive inotropes increase contractility, producing greater stroke volume at a given preload and shifting the Frank - Starling curve upward and leftward. Negative inotropes move it downward and rightward. This shift improves cardiac output without increasing filling pressure. CV Physiology
An S4 gallop is most commonly associated with:
Acute myocardial infarction
High-output heart failure
Volume overload
Decreased ventricular compliance
An S4 gallop occurs just before S1 during atrial contraction against a stiff or noncompliant ventricle, often due to left ventricular hypertrophy or ischemia. It is absent in atrial fibrillation since atrial contraction is lost. Volume overload produces S3 rather than S4. NCBI
Which medication is indicated for frequent symptomatic premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?
Metoprolol
Lidocaine
Furosemide
Diltiazem
Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic used intravenously for acute management of symptomatic PVCs and ventricular arrhythmias. Beta-blockers like metoprolol can reduce ectopy but are not first-line for acute PVC suppression. Calcium channel blockers and diuretics are not indicated. UpToDate
The first-line vasoactive agent for hypertensive emergency in acute decompensated heart failure is:
Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine
Nitroprusside
Dopamine
Sodium nitroprusside is preferred for hypertensive emergencies in acute heart failure because of its potent afterload reduction and rapid titratability. Phenylephrine and norepinephrine increase afterload and are contraindicated. Dopamine is used for cardiogenic shock with bradycardia. AHA Journals
Which hemodynamic finding on a pulmonary artery catheter suggests cardiac tamponade?
Elevated pulse pressure
Low systemic vascular resistance
Equalization of diastolic pressures in all chambers
High cardiac output
Cardiac tamponade produces elevated and equalized diastolic pressures in all heart chambers due to pericardial fluid limiting filling. Pulse pressure narrows, SVR increases, and cardiac output falls. Recognizing equalization is critical for diagnosis. CV Physiology
A common complication of left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) is:
Right-sided heart failure only
Pulmonary embolism
Gastrointestinal bleeding due to acquired von Willebrand factor deficiency
Acute pericarditis
LVADs generate high shear stress, leading to acquired von Willebrand factor deficiency and increased risk of GI bleeding. Acute pericarditis is uncommon post-implant, and while right heart failure can occur, GI bleeding is more frequent. Anticoagulation management is crucial. NCBI PMC
Which inotrope increases contractility with minimal increase in heart rate?
Isoproterenol
Epinephrine
Milrinone
Dobutamine
Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor that improves contractility and lowers afterload with minimal chronotropic effect. Dobutamine has more beta-1 stimulation and increases heart rate. Epinephrine and isoproterenol significantly raise heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. UpToDate
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Cardiac Physiology and Pathophysiology -

    After completing the cardiac quiz, you'll grasp essential heart functions and disease mechanisms vital for effective cardiology nursing care.

  2. Analyze ECG Patterns and Arrhythmias -

    Practice interpreting common electrocardiogram tracings to identify normal and abnormal rhythms with confidence.

  3. Apply Evidence-Based Interventions -

    Use scenario-driven cardiology nursing questions to determine appropriate nursing actions during acute cardiac events.

  4. Evaluate Patient Risk Factors -

    Learn to assess and prioritize cardiovascular risk elements, enhancing your ability to educate and monitor patients proactively.

  5. Recall Critical Cardiac Pharmacology -

    Reinforce your understanding of cardiac drug classes, mechanisms of action, and nursing considerations in cardiovascular care.

  6. Boost Clinical Decision-Making Confidence -

    Track your score in this nursing cardiac quiz to identify knowledge gaps and strengthen your decision-making skills on the floor.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Cardiac Output and Hemodynamics -

    Review the formula CO = HR × SV, where stroke volume depends on preload, afterload, and contractility (Guyton & Hall, 2020). Remember the Frank - Starling law: "more stretch equals more squeeze" to predict how volume changes affect output. Use this in your nursing cardiac quiz to interpret vital signs and fluid management.

  2. ECG Waveform Basics -

    Master the PQRST sequence: P wave for atrial depolarization, QRS complex for ventricular depolarization, and T wave for repolarization (AHA, 2015). A helpful mnemonic is "Pals Quickly Ride The Unicorn" to remember P-QRS-T-U (U wave optional). Solid ECG interpretation is key to acing cardiology nursing questions on arrhythmias and conduction blocks.

  3. ACLS Cardiac Arrest Algorithms -

    Learn next steps for VF/pulseless VT versus asystole/PEA, including defibrillation energy (200 - 360 J biphasic) and epinephrine timing (every 3 - 5 minutes) (ERC Guidelines, 2021). Practice scenario-based drills to boost speed and confidence under pressure. This is a high-yield topic for any nursing cardiac quiz or cardiac nursing test.

  4. Cardiac Pharmacology Mnemonics -

    Use "ABCD" for antihypertensive classes: ACE inhibitors, Beta-blockers, Calcium channel blockers, Diuretics. Know mechanisms, key side effects, and contraindications to answer nursing cardiac trivia with ease. Linking drug classes to clinical scenarios strengthens retention and patient safety knowledge (Pharmacology Review Journal, 2022).

  5. Myocardial Infarction Biomarkers -

    Compare troponin I/T rise (3 - 6 h post-MI, peaks at 14 - 20 h) with CK-MB (4 - 6 h, peaks at 24 h) to time chest pain onset (ESC, 2020). A simple timeline diagram helps visualize the diagnostic window for acute MI. Expect these facts on any nursing cardiac quiz or cardiology nursing questions section.

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