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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Test Your Nursing Core Competency With 64 Questions

Master commonly prescribed eye and ear medications and core competency nursing - take the quiz!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art style nursing quiz with 64 questions and eye and ear medication icons on teal background

Calling all dedicated RNs, NPs, and nursing students! Ready to test your mastery with the Nursing Core Competency Quiz: 64 Q&A Challenge? This comprehensive core competency nursing 64 questions and answers assessment hones your critical thinking, doubles as a rigorous nursing competency test, and strengthens your recall of commonly prescribed eye and ear medications quizlet essentials in this core competency nursing quiz and eye and ear meds quiz. Plus, track your progress with comprehensive reports that pinpoint areas for targeted study. Every question offers instant feedback and clear rationales to accelerate learning, ignite your confidence, and prepare you for clinical success - dive in with our quick nursing quiz or deepen your expertise with a fundamentals of nursing quiz today!

What is the normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult?
8-12 breaths per minute
28-35 breaths per minute
20-28 breaths per minute
12-20 breaths per minute
The normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory compromise or other health issues. Accurate assessment is critical for early detection of respiratory problems. CDC
Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
Mask, gown, goggles, gloves
Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
Gown, gloves, goggles, mask
According to standard infection control guidelines, PPE should be donned in the order of gown, mask (or respirator), goggles (or face shield), and then gloves to minimize contamination risk. This sequence helps protect mucous membranes and skin from exposure. Following correct donning procedures is essential to prevent hospital-acquired infections. CDC Infection Control
What is the normal adult resting heart rate?
100-120 beats per minute
40-60 beats per minute
120-140 beats per minute
60-100 beats per minute
A healthy adult typically has a resting heart rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate bradycardia or tachycardia and warrant further evaluation. Heart rate assessment is a fundamental component of vital sign monitoring. WHO
Which of the following represents the five rights of medication administration?
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right documentation, right time
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right site
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time
Right patient, right drug, right expiration date, right route, right time
The five rights are patient, drug, dose, route, and time, which are essential checks to ensure safe medication administration. Verifying each right reduces the risk of medication errors. Adhering to these rights is a core competency for all nurses. NCBI
Which precaution is required for a patient with Clostridioides difficile infection?
Contact precautions
Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions
Standard precautions only
Contact precautions are recommended for C. difficile to prevent transmission of spores via direct or indirect contact. This includes wearing gloves and gowns when interacting with the patient or their environment. Proper hand hygiene with soap and water is crucial since alcohol-based sanitizers are less effective against spores. CDC C. difficile
What is the recommended disposal method for a used hypodermic needle?
Regular trash bin
Biohazard linen hamper
Recycling bin
Sharps container
Used hypodermic needles must be disposed of in a designated sharps container to prevent needle-stick injuries and blood-borne pathogen transmission. These containers are puncture-resistant and clearly labeled for safety. Proper disposal is a fundamental part of safe injection practices. WHO Safe Sharps
When administering ear drops to an adult, which position best facilitates correct instillation?
Lie with the affected ear facing down
Tilt head so affected ear is facing upward
Lie flat on unaffected side
Sit upright with head tilted forward
Tilting the head so the affected ear is facing upward allows the drops to flow into the canal, ensuring proper medication coverage. Remaining in this position for a few minutes enhances absorption. Proper positioning minimizes wastage and maximizes therapeutic effect. American Academy of Ophthalmology
What is the first step before instilling eye drops?
Wash hands thoroughly
Pull down lower eyelid and instill drop
Shake the bottle vigorously
Tilt head backward
Hand hygiene is the first step in any medication administration to prevent contamination and infection. Washing hands with soap and water or an alcohol-based rub removes transient microorganisms. This step protects both patient and nurse from cross-contamination. CDC Hand Hygiene
Which tool is used to measure a patient's intraocular pressure?
Ophthalmoscope
Tonometer
Otoscope
Snellen chart
A tonometer is the instrument used to measure intraocular pressure, which is critical in glaucoma assessment. It can be applanation or non-contact type. Regular tonometry helps in monitoring eye health and preventing optic nerve damage. NCBI Tonometer
How long should pressure be applied to the nasolacrimal duct after instilling eye drops?
10 seconds
2 minutes
1 minute
5 seconds
Applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for about one minute reduces systemic absorption of topical eye medications. This technique helps retain the drug in the ocular tissues and minimizes systemic side effects. It is recommended in most ophthalmic drug administration guidelines. AAO Drug Administration
Which of the following best describes the SBAR communication tool?
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
Steps, Behavior, Action, Response
Symptoms, Biology, Anatomy, Response
Safety, Briefing, Action, Reporting
SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, and is a standardized communication framework used to convey critical information efficiently. It enhances patient safety by ensuring clarity and completeness. SBAR is widely taught in nursing education and practice. Johns Hopkins Medicine
What is an appropriate second patient identifier before medication administration?
Patient's medical record number and name
Patient's bed location
Patient room number
Nurse's preference
Using two unique patient identifiers, such as the medical record number and full name, reduces the risk of patient misidentification. Room number or bed location are not reliable identifiers as assignments can change. This practice is mandated by patient safety guidelines. Joint Commission
What is the recommended angle for intramuscular injection?
15 degrees
30 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
Intramuscular injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue. This angle helps avoid subcutaneous fat and maximizes absorption. Proper technique reduces pain and prevents tissue damage. WHO Injection Safety
Which hand hygiene technique should be used when hands are visibly soiled?
Wearing gloves without handwashing
Using hand lotion
Soap and water handwashing
Alcohol-based hand rub
When hands are visibly soiled or contaminated with bodily fluids, the CDC recommends washing with soap and water. Alcohol-based hand rubs are not sufficient to remove dirt or certain pathogens. Proper handwashing is a cornerstone of infection prevention. CDC Handwashing
What is the normal adult oxygen saturation (SpO2) range?
95-100%
80-90%
70-80%
100-110%
Normal SpO2 values for a healthy adult on room air range from 95% to 100%. Values below 90% are concerning and may indicate hypoxemia. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method to monitor oxygenation status. NCBI SpO2
Which action prevents contamination of an eye drop bottle tip?
Avoiding contact between the tip and any surface
Recapping the bottle immediately after use
Keeping the tip elevated above the eye
Touching the tip to the eyelid before instillation
To avoid introducing pathogens into the eye drop bottle or the eye, the tip must not touch the eyelid, eyelashes, or any surface. Maintaining a small distance between the bottle tip and the eye ensures sterility. Recapping alone does not prevent initial contamination. AAO Eye Drops
A pediatric dose is ordered as 10 mg/kg. The child weighs 15 kg. How much total dose should be administered?
1.5 g
150 mg
0.15 g
15 mg
Dosing by weight requires multiplying the dose per kilogram by the patient's weight. Therefore, 10 mg/kg × 15 kg = 150 mg. Accurate calculation is crucial to avoid under- or overdosing. NCBI Pediatric Dosage
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr for an order of 1000 mL D5W to run over 8 hours.
125 mL/hr
100 mL/hr
200 mL/hr
150 mL/hr
To calculate infusion rate, divide the total volume by the time: 1000 mL ÷ 8 hr = 125 mL/hr. Accurate rate calculation ensures appropriate fluid delivery and patient safety. WHO IV Therapy
Which PPE is required for droplet precautions?
N95 respirator
Sterile gloves
Gown only
Surgical mask and eye protection
Droplet precautions require donning a surgical mask and eye protection to prevent transmission of pathogens carried by large respiratory droplets. N95 respirators are used for airborne precautions. Proper PPE selection is based on transmission mode. CDC Precautions
Which ingredient in some ear drops is known for potential ototoxicity?
Carbamide peroxide
Hydrocortisone
Glycerin
Neomycin
Neomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity when applied to the ear canal, especially if the tympanic membrane is perforated. Monitoring and caution are needed when prescribing. Alternative non-ototoxic agents may be preferred. AAO Antibiotics
Which of the following is a contraindication to perform ear irrigation?
Perforated tympanic membrane
Otitis externa
Impacted cerumen
Water in ear canal
Ear irrigation is contraindicated if there is a perforated tympanic membrane due to risk of introducing fluid into the middle ear, causing infection or damage. Other methods such as topical agents should be used instead. Always inspect the tympanic membrane before irrigating. NCBI Ear Irrigation
Interpret a visual acuity result of 20/40.
Can read at 40 feet what a normal eye reads at 20 feet
Sees clearly at both 20 and 40 feet
Can read at 20 feet what a normal eye reads at 40 feet
Has poor peripheral vision
A 20/40 result means the patient sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 40 feet. This indicates reduced visual acuity. This metric guides the need for corrective lenses or further evaluation. AAO Visual Acuity
Timolol eye drops for glaucoma primarily reduce intraocular pressure by:
Constricting the pupil
Stimulating aqueous humor production
Decreasing aqueous humor production
Increasing outflow through the trabecular meshwork
Timolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that lowers intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous humor production in the ciliary body. It does not directly affect outflow pathways. This mechanism helps manage chronic open-angle glaucoma. NCBI Timolol
What is the term for an ear drop solution with the same osmolarity as body fluids?
Hypotonic
Anisotonic
Isotonic
Hypertonic
An isotonic solution has the same osmotic pressure as body fluids, reducing irritation when instilled. Hypertonic solutions draw fluid out of tissues, and hypotonic draw fluid in, which can cause discomfort. Isotonic ear drops are generally best tolerated. WHO Pharmacology
What is the primary purpose of placing an ear wick in otitis externa?
Deliver medication into the canal
Measure ear canal pressure
Support a hearing aid
Drain pus from middle ear
An ear wick is used to facilitate absorption of topical medication by expanding within the canal and delivering drops directly to the affected skin. It helps maintain medication contact over time. Wicking is especially useful in severe or swollen canals. NCBI Otitis Externa
Which medication is used intravenously to rapidly reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle-closure glaucoma?
Mannitol
Timolol
Pilocarpine
Acetazolamide
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic administered intravenously to quickly lower intraocular pressure by drawing fluid out from the eye. It is indicated in acute angle-closure glaucoma emergencies. Other agents like acetazolamide are effective but slower acting. AAO Glaucoma
Which sign indicates an allergic reaction to eye drops?
Increased tearing only
Blurred vision only
Dry eyes
Redness and itching
Redness, itching, and sometimes swelling are common signs of an allergic reaction to topical eye medications. Increased tearing may occur but is not specific. Identifying allergic reactions promptly is important to prevent serious ocular damage. NCBI Allergy
When administering ear drops to a child under 3 years old, how should the pinna be pulled?
Up and back
Straight back
Down and back
Forward and up
For children under three, pulling the pinna down and back straightens the ear canal for effective medication delivery. In adults, the pinna is pulled up and back. Correct technique ensures proper absorption and reduces discomfort. CDC Ear Care
Calculate the drops per minute for an infusion of 500 mL over 4 hours with a set of 20 drops/mL.
60 gtts/min
50 gtts/min
42 gtts/min
30 gtts/min
First calculate the total drops: 500 mL × 20 gtts/mL = 10,000 drops. Then divide by total minutes: 4 hr × 60 min = 240 min. 10,000 drops ÷ 240 min ? 41.7 gtts/min, rounded to 42 gtts/min. Accurate infusion rates are essential for patient safety. WHO IV Calculations
Systemic absorption of topical ocular medications can be minimized by:
Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct after instillation
Using larger drop volumes
Blinking frequently
Instilling in supine position
Applying pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for one minute prevents drainage into the nasopharynx and systemic circulation. This technique reduces side effects and maximizes local drug action. It is recommended for most ophthalmic medications. AAO Drug Delivery
Patient teaching for contact lens hygiene should emphasize:
Cleaning case with fresh solution and air drying
Rinsing lenses with tap water
Replacing solution daily
Sharing solution with others
Contact lens cases should be cleaned daily with fresh solution and allowed to air dry to reduce microbial contamination. Tap water can introduce pathogens like Acanthamoeba. Strict hygiene prevents keratitis and other infections. CDC Contact Lens
Which systemic corticosteroid side effect requires monitoring intraocular pressure?
Cataract formation
Weight gain
Ocular hypertension
Hyperglycemia
Long-term corticosteroid therapy can increase intraocular pressure and lead to glaucoma. Regular monitoring helps detect ocular hypertension early. Other systemic effects also occur, but ocular monitoring is essential for eye health. NCBI Steroids
Prostaglandin analogs like latanoprost lower intraocular pressure by:
Increasing uveoscleral outflow
Constricting the pupil
Decreasing aqueous humor production
Blocking carbonic anhydrase
Prostaglandin analogs such as latanoprost increase uveoscleral outflow, which reduces intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients. They remodel the extracellular matrix in the ciliary body to enhance fluid drainage. This mechanism differs from beta-blockers and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. NCBI Prostaglandins
Mydriatic agents are used to:
Dilate the pupil
Treat infection
Constrict the pupil
Reduce intraocular pressure
Mydriatic drugs induce pupil dilation for diagnostic procedures or to treat certain ocular conditions. By relaxing the iris sphincter muscle, they allow a better view of the retina. Their use must be monitored, as they can increase light sensitivity and intraocular pressure. AAO Pharmacology
Acute otitis externa is inflammation of the:
Middle ear
Inner ear
External ear canal
Tympanic membrane
Acute otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear, involves inflammation of the external auditory canal. Symptoms include ear pain, discharge, and pruritus. Treatment usually involves topical antibiotics and acidifying agents. CDC Otitis Externa
Beta-blocker eye drops are contraindicated in patients with:
Asthma or COPD
Glaucoma
Hypertension
Diabetes mellitus
Because topical beta-blockers can be systemically absorbed and exacerbate bronchoconstriction, they are contraindicated in patients with asthma or COPD. While effective in glaucoma, caution is needed in respiratory comorbidities. Alternative therapies may be chosen for these patients. NCBI Beta-Blockers
For an IV infusion using a macrodrip set of 15 gtts/mL, how many drops per minute are needed to infuse 600 mL over 5 hours?
30 gtts/min
20 gtts/min
25 gtts/min
40 gtts/min
Total drops = 600 mL × 15 gtts/mL = 9000 drops. Total minutes = 5 hr × 60 min = 300 min. Drops per minute = 9000 ÷ 300 = 30 gtts/min. Accurate infusion calculation is crucial to ensure correct fluid delivery. WHO IV Calculations
Normal intraocular pressure measured by tonometry ranges between:
5-10 mmHg
22-30 mmHg
10-21 mmHg
30-40 mmHg
Standard tonometry readings for a healthy eye fall between 10 and 21 mmHg. Pressures above this range can indicate ocular hypertension or glaucoma. Regular monitoring is essential for at-risk patients. AAO Tonometry
First-line treatment for acute otitis media in children without allergy is:
Ciprofloxacin
Azithromycin
Clotrimazole
Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media in children without penicillin allergy. It is chosen for its efficacy, safety, and low cost. Dose adjustments may be needed based on age and weight. CDC Otitis Media
Gentamicin ear drops exhibit what type of pharmacokinetics when applied topically?
High protein binding
First-pass metabolism
Minimal systemic absorption
Zero-order kinetics
Topical application of gentamicin in the ear results in minimal systemic absorption unless the tympanic membrane is perforated. This property allows high local concentrations with limited systemic side effects. However, monitoring for ototoxicity is still recommended. NCBI Gentamicin
Concurrent use of acetazolamide and aspirin may increase risk of:
Metabolic acidosis
Hypotension
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can cause metabolic acidosis by increasing bicarbonate excretion. Aspirin can potentiate this effect and worsen acid-base balance. Monitoring blood pH and electrolytes is advisable. NCBI Acetazolamide
A potential complication of using a high-pressure jet irrigator in ear wax removal is:
Hearing improvement
Reduced tinnitus
External canal exfoliation
Tympanic membrane perforation
High-pressure irrigation can traumatize the tympanic membrane, leading to perforation, pain, and possible hearing loss. Low-pressure, controlled techniques are preferred. Assessing membrane integrity prior to irrigation reduces risk. NCBI Ear Irrigation
A cholesteatoma is:
Fungal infection of the ear
A benign tumor in the external canal
Excessive earwax
A collection of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear
Cholesteatoma is an abnormal growth of squamous epithelial debris in the middle ear that can erode bone and cause hearing loss. It requires surgical management to prevent complications. Early identification is vital. NCBI Cholesteatoma
In patients with renal impairment, which adjustment is necessary for certain ear medications?
Increase dose frequency
Decrease dose or frequency
Switch to IV route
No adjustment needed
Renal impairment can reduce clearance of systemic components of some ear medications, increasing toxicity risk. It is often necessary to decrease dose or frequency. Monitoring renal function guides safe dosing. NCBI Dosing
Pilocarpine eye drops, as cholinergic agonists, may cause:
Decreased tear production
Constricted pupil (miosis) and headache
Increased intraocular pressure
Mydriasis
Pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic receptors, causing miosis and ciliary muscle contraction, which can lead to headache from ciliary spasm. It increases aqueous outflow via the trabecular meshwork. Monitoring for ocular discomfort is important. NCBI Pilocarpine
Long-term systemic hydroxychloroquine use requires monitoring for:
Liver function only
Renal output
Retinal toxicity
Cardiac arrhythmias primarily
Hydroxychloroquine can accumulate in retinal pigment epithelium, leading to irreversible retinopathy. Annual ophthalmologic exams are recommended for early detection of toxicity. Other systemic effects exist but retinal monitoring is critical. NCBI Hydroxychloroquine
A Braden Scale sensory perception score of 1 indicates:
No impairment
Completely limited
Slightly limited
Completely intact
On the Braden Scale, a sensory perception score of 1 indicates the patient is completely limited and unable to respond meaningfully to pressure-related discomfort. This is a high risk for pressure ulcers. Regular repositioning and skin care are essential preventative measures. NPUAP
In case of chemical ocular burn, irrigation should continue until the pH normalizes to:
6.0-6.5
4.0-5.0
8.0-8.5
7.0-7.4
Chemical ocular burns require irrigation until the ocular surface pH returns to a neutral range of 7.0 - 7.4 to stop the chemical reaction and minimize tissue damage. Frequent pH checks guide irrigation duration. Immediate and adequate irrigation is critical. NCBI Burns
Echothiophate iodide lowers intraocular pressure by:
Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
Blocking beta receptors
Osmotic diuresis
Irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Echothiophate iodide is an organophosphate that irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase in the eye, leading to increased acetylcholine levels, miosis, and enhanced aqueous outflow. Its long-acting nature requires careful monitoring for cholinergic side effects. NCBI Echothiophate
Interprofessional collaboration in diabetic retinopathy screening often involves:
A team including ophthalmologists, primary care physicians, and nurses
Pharmacists only
Only ophthalmologists
Nurses screening blood sugar
Effective diabetic retinopathy screening programs rely on interprofessional teams: ophthalmologists for imaging and interpretation, primary care physicians for referral, and nurses for patient education and coordination. Collaboration enhances early detection and management. WHO Diabetes
Off-label use of ocular medications requires:
No special considerations
Only physician's preference
Ethical review and informed consent
Insurance approval only
Prescribing medications off-label necessitates ethical review, thorough documentation, and informed consent so patients understand the benefits and potential risks. This practice aligns with professional and regulatory standards. NCBI Ethics
Nanocarrier eye drop formulations primarily improve drug therapy by:
Decreasing ocular bioavailability
Causing irreversible corneal damage
Enhancing corneal penetration and sustained release
Increasing systemic absorption
Nanocarrier-based eye drops improve therapeutic outcomes by enhancing corneal penetration, providing sustained drug release, and reducing dosing frequency. They can increase bioavailability while minimizing systemic exposure. Research supports their potential in advanced ocular treatments. NCBI Nanocarriers
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Comprehensive Core Competency Nursing 64 Questions and Answers -

    Identify and explain key principles covered in this comprehensive core competency nursing quiz to solidify foundational nursing skills.

  2. Apply Critical Thinking in the Core Competency Nursing Quiz -

    Use case-based scenarios to sharpen clinical reasoning and make evidence-based decisions in patient care.

  3. Identify Commonly Prescribed Eye and Ear Medications -

    Recognize indications, contraindications, and adverse effects of commonly prescribed eye and ear medications to ensure safe administration.

  4. Recall Pharmacological Classifications in Eye and Ear Meds Quizlet -

    Memorize drug classes and mechanisms of action for the eye and ear meds quizlet format to reinforce pharmacology knowledge.

  5. Evaluate Performance on the Nursing Competency Test -

    Assess your strengths and gaps through instant feedback on the nursing competency test to guide further study and improvement.

  6. Build Confidence with a Comprehensive Core Competency Nursing Quiz Challenge -

    Track your progress and boost your nursing prowess by completing this 64-question challenge designed for students and professionals alike.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Safe Medication Calculation Fundamentals -

    Master the dosage calculation formula (Desired Dose / Dose on Hand × Vehicle Volume). Practicing with cases from state boards and the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) helps reinforce accuracy. A quick mnemonic is "D over H, times V" to prevent errors in the comprehensive core competency nursing 64 questions and answers context.

  2. American Nurses Association Core Competency Standards -

    Familiarize yourself with the ANA's six scopes and standards of practice, covering ethics, education, evidence-based practice and more. Recall them with the acronym "E³ I²": Ethics, Education, Evidence-based, Leadership, Innovation, Collaboration. These standards underpin the core competency nursing quiz and ensure professional consistency.

  3. PERRLA and Eye Assessment Mnemonic -

    Use the PERRLA mnemonic (Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation) to streamline ocular exams. Pair this with proper instillation technique - have patients look up, gently pull down the lower lid, and place drops into the conjunctival sac. This approach appears frequently in eye and ear meds quizzes and aligns with American Academy of Ophthalmology guidelines.

  4. Proper Technique for Ear Medication Administration -

    Administer ear drops by using the "pull and pour" method: in adults, gently pull the pinna up and back; in children under three, pull down and back. Allow drops to linger by keeping the head tilted for 2 - 3 minutes to enhance absorption. This method is critical for commonly prescribed eye and ear medications quizlet preparation and practical competency tests.

  5. Focused Neurovascular Check: 6 Ps -

    Perform regular assessments using the "6 Ps" mnemonic: Pain, Pulse, Pallor, Paresthesia, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia. Documenting each parameter ensures early detection of circulation or neurological compromise. Incorporating this in your nursing competency test review solidifies patient safety practices.

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