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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Conquer Neuro NCLEX Questions: Start Your Free Practice Quiz

Ready to tackle NCLEX RN neurological questions? Dive in and test your neuro NCLEX skills!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration of brain and neurons for a free scored neuro NCLEX quiz on coral background

Are you ready to conquer neuro NCLEX questions and sharpen your nursing expertise? This free scored quiz is designed to test your understanding of neurological NCLEX questions, from nclex multiple sclerosis questions to intricate brain pathophysiology. Whether you're reviewing nclex rn neurological questions or seeking more confidence before exam day, our challenge lets you track your progress and identify areas for improvement. Dive into our collection of neuro NCLEX questions and tackle targeted neuro nclex rn questions today! Ready to boost your score? Let's get started and master those neuro concepts together!

Which response in the Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates the best eye opening?
To verbal stimuli
Spontaneous
To pain
No eye opening
Spontaneous eye opening scores the highest (4) on the Glasgow Coma Scale eye response subscale, indicating the best level of arousal. Eye opening to speech scores 3, and to pain scores 2. Absence of eye opening is scored as 1. NurseLabs - Glasgow Coma Scale
Which test specifically assesses cranial nerve II function?
Taste on the posterior tongue
Confrontation visual field test
Shoulder shrug
Blink reflex
The confrontation visual field test evaluates peripheral vision and tests the optic nerve (CN II). The blink reflex involves CN V and VII. Shoulder shrug assesses the accessory nerve (CN XI). Posterior tongue taste is served by CN IX. NCBI - Cranial Nerve Examination
A stroke patient exhibits difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?
Cerebellum
Frontal lobe
Medulla oblongata
Occipital lobe
Swallowing is coordinated in the medulla oblongata where the swallowing center resides. The cerebellum coordinates balance and posture. The frontal lobe controls voluntary movement and cognition. The occipital lobe processes vision. NCBI - Swallowing Mechanism
What position is recommended for a patient undergoing a lumbar puncture?
Prone with pillow under abdomen
Sitting upright and leaning forward
Supine with head elevated 30°
Lateral decubitus with knees flexed
The lateral decubitus position with knees flexed maximizes intervertebral space and straightens the spinal column for lumbar puncture. Sitting positions can be used but are less stable. Prone is not recommended. Supine with head elevation is used for post-procedure recovery. NCBI - Lumbar Puncture Technique
Which sign indicates meningeal irritation in a patient suspected of meningitis?
Babinski's sign
Clarkson's sign
Brudzinski's sign
Tinel's sign
Brudzinski's sign - hip and knee flexion when the neck is flexed - indicates meningeal irritation. Babinski's sign tests upper motor neuron function. Tinel's sign tests for peripheral nerve irritability. There is no clinical Clarkson's sign. NCBI - Meningeal Signs
Pupillary dilation and impaired eye movement suggest compression of which cranial nerve?
Oculomotor (III)
Optic (II)
Abducens (VI)
Trochlear (IV)
Cranial nerve III controls most extraocular movements and pupillary constriction. Compression leads to dilation and eye movement impairment. CN IV and VI control single extraocular muscles without pupil involvement. CN II carries visual input only. NCBI - Oculomotor Nerve
Decorticate posturing indicates damage to which area?
Brainstem below the red nucleus
Cerebral hemispheres
Spinal cord
Cerebellum
Decorticate posturing (flexor) indicates lesion of the corticospinal tracts at the level of the diencephalon or cerebral hemispheres. Brainstem lesions below the red nucleus cause decerebrate (extensor) posturing. The cerebellum and spinal cord lesions produce different motor signs. NCBI - Posturing
What is the most sensitive early sign of increased intracranial pressure?
Cushing's triad
Papilledema
Change in level of consciousness
Projectile vomiting
Altered level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive sign of increasing intracranial pressure. Cushing's triad and papilledema appear later. Projectile vomiting can occur but is less sensitive. NurseLabs - ICP Signs
Which reflex tests the trigeminal nerve's sensory function?
Corneal reflex
Blink reflex
Plantar reflex
Gag reflex
The corneal reflex sensory limb is mediated by the trigeminal nerve (V1 branch). The motor limb involves the facial nerve. The gag reflex sensory limb is IX. The blink reflex involves V and VII but is a variant of corneal. The plantar reflex tests corticospinal tracts. NCBI - Cranial Nerve Reflexes
Receptive aphasia (Wernicke's) is associated with lesions in which lobe?
Occipital lobe
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
Parietal lobe
Wernicke's area is located in the dominant temporal lobe and is responsible for language comprehension. Frontal lobe houses Broca's area for speech production. Parietal lobe integrates sensory information. Occipital lobe processes vision. NCBI - Aphasia
Bell's palsy primarily involves dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
Trigeminal (V)
Facial (VII)
Vagus (X)
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Bell's palsy results from acute inflammation of the facial nerve (CN VII), causing unilateral facial paralysis. The trigeminal nerve mediates facial sensation. Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves are involved in swallowing and gag reflex. Mayo Clinic - Bell's Palsy
What is the underlying pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?
Degeneration of upper motor neurons
Excess dopamine in synaptic cleft
Demyelination of peripheral nerves
Autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors
Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies that block or destroy acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness. Demyelination causes Guillain-Barré syndrome. Upper motor neuron degeneration causes ALS. Excess dopamine is related to Huntington's disease. NCBI - Myasthenia Gravis
Which feature is a classic cardinal sign of Parkinson's disease?
Paresthesia
Intentional tremor
Resting tremor
Hyperreflexia
A resting tremor that disappears with voluntary movement is a hallmark of Parkinson's disease. Intentional tremor is seen in cerebellar disorders. Paresthesia indicates sensory neuropathy. Hyperreflexia suggests upper motor neuron lesions. Parkinson's Foundation
Multiple sclerosis is characterized by which primary pathological process?
Demyelination in the peripheral nervous system
Neurofibrillary tangles
Synaptic dopamine deficiency
Demyelination in the central nervous system
Multiple sclerosis involves autoimmune-mediated demyelination of CNS neurons, leading to conduction delays. Peripheral demyelination is seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome. Neurofibrillary tangles occur in Alzheimer's disease. Dopamine deficiency is linked to Parkinson's. National MS Society
Broca's aphasia is best described by which characteristic?
Peripheral facial weakness
Nonfluent speech with intact comprehension
Fluent speech with poor comprehension
Complete loss of speech and comprehension
Broca's aphasia causes nonfluent, effortful speech with preserved comprehension. Fluent speech with poor comprehension describes Wernicke's aphasia. Complete loss indicates global aphasia. Facial weakness is a motor deficit, not aphasia. NCBI - Aphasia
An aura before a seizure indicates involvement of which brain function?
Basal ganglia hyperactivity
Focal cortical irritation
Cerebellar instability
Brainstem dysfunction
An aura represents focal cortical neuronal discharges preceding generalized seizure activity. Brainstem dysfunction causes altered vital signs. Basal ganglia and cerebellum are not typically sources of epileptic auras. Epilepsy Foundation
Among the following, which is the strongest modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke?
Gender
Hypertension
Family history
Age over 65
Hypertension is the most important modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke. Age, family history, and gender are nonmodifiable. Controlling blood pressure reduces stroke risk significantly. AHA - Stroke Risk Factors
Which symptom is most characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Unilateral motor weakness
Suboccipital neck pain
"Thunderclap" headache
Visual hallucinations
A sudden, severe 'thunderclap' headache reaching maximum intensity in seconds is classic for subarachnoid hemorrhage. Neck pain can occur but is less specific. Motor weakness is more common in ischemic stroke. Visual hallucinations are rare. NCBI - Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
What type of primary headache is characterized by unilateral, pulsating pain with photophobia?
Tension-type
Sinus
Cluster
Migraine
Migraines are typically unilateral, pulsating headaches accompanied by photophobia and phonophobia. Tension headaches are bilateral and pressing. Cluster headaches are severe, around the eye, with autonomic features. Sinus headaches accompany nasal congestion. NCBI - Headache Classification
After a lumbar puncture, how often should a neurological assessment be performed?
Every 15 minutes for the first hour
Only if symptoms develop
Every 4 hours for 12 hours
Every 2 hours for 24 hours
Frequent assessments (every 15 minutes for the first hour) help detect early complications such as headache or bleeding. Decreasing frequency thereafter is common. Waiting for symptoms may delay intervention. NCBI - Post-Lumbar Puncture Care
Which principle explains the fixed total volume of brain tissue, CSF, and blood in the skull?
Law of LaPlace
Cushing reflex
Monro-Kellie doctrine
Frank-Starling law
The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of volumes of brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid, and intracranial blood is constant. Frank-Starling law applies to cardiac output. Cushing reflex is a physiological response to increased ICP. LaPlace's law relates to vessel wall tension. NCBI - Intracranial Dynamics
Cushing's triad consists of which trio of vital sign changes?
Hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea
Hypotension, bradycardia, apnea
Hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia
Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations
Cushing's triad - widening pulse pressure (hypertension), bradycardia, and irregular respirations - indicates high intracranial pressure and impending herniation. Hypotension with tachycardia suggests shock. Fever and hyperthermia are not part of this triad. NCBI - Cushing's Triad
What is often the earliest symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Paresthesia of the feet and hands
Severe headache
Facial droop
Visual loss
Guillain-Barré syndrome often begins with ascending paresthesia and weakness in the distal extremities. Headache and visual loss suggest CNS pathology. Facial droop can occur later but is not the initial sign. NCBI - Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Which condition most commonly triggers autonomic dysreflexia?
Bladder distention
Hypoglycemia
Hyperthermia
Deep vein thrombosis
Bladder distention is the most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia in spinal cord injury patients above T6. Hypoglycemia and hyperthermia are not typical triggers. DVT causes pain but not the autonomic surge seen in dysreflexia. NCBI - Autonomic Dysreflexia
When administering mannitol for increased ICP, what must be monitored closely?
Blood glucose
Serum osmolarity
Liver enzymes
Platelet count
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that raises serum osmolarity; monitoring prevents renal failure and electrolyte imbalance. Platelet count and liver enzymes are not directly affected. Blood glucose is unaffected by mannitol. NCBI - Mannitol Pharmacology
A transient ischemic attack is defined by neurologic deficits lasting less than how many hours?
24 hours
12 hours
48 hours
1 hour
A transient ischemic attack involves focal neurologic signs resolving within 24 hours without infarction. Deficits lasting longer suggest stroke. The arbitrary cutoff remains 24 hours. AHA - TIA Definition
Huntington's disease is inherited in which pattern?
X-linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
Mitochondrial
Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder caused by CAG repeats on chromosome 4. Autosomal recessive diseases require two mutated alleles. X-linked and mitochondrial inheritance follow different patterns. NCBI - Huntington's Disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis primarily affects which type of neuron?
Autonomic neurons
Interneurons
Upper and lower motor neurons
Sensory neurons
ALS involves progressive degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Sensory and autonomic neurons are typically spared. NCBI - ALS
Barbiturate-induced coma may be indicated for refractory intracranial hypertension because it:
Enhances CSF production
Reduces cerebral metabolic rate
Increases systemic blood pressure
Vasodilates cerebral vessels
Barbiturates decrease cerebral metabolic demand and ICP by reducing cerebral blood flow. They do not enhance CSF production or vasodilate. Blood pressure may drop with barbiturates, not increase. NCBI - Barbiturate Coma
Which triad characterizes Wernicke encephalopathy?
Fasciculations, weakness, hyperreflexia
Myoclonus, dementia, seizures
Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion
Bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor
Wernicke encephalopathy results from thiamine deficiency and presents with the classic triad of ophthalmoplegia, gait ataxia, and confusion. The other options describe Parkinson's, Creutzfeldt-Jakob, and motor neuron disease respectively. NCBI - Wernicke Encephalopathy
What is the primary endovascular intervention for a ruptured intracranial aneurysm?
Endovascular coiling
Deep brain stimulation
Carotid endarterectomy
Stereotactic radiosurgery
Endovascular coiling fills the aneurysm sac to prevent rebleeding and is the preferred minimally invasive technique for ruptured aneurysms. Carotid endarterectomy treats carotid stenosis. Radiosurgery is used for AVMs or tumors. Deep brain stimulation treats movement disorders. AHA - Aneurysm Management
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand core neurological principles for NCLEX RN -

    Gain a clear grasp of fundamental neurophysiology and pathophysiology concepts to tackle neuro NCLEX questions with confidence.

  2. Analyze neuro NCLEX questions and neurological NCLEX patterns -

    Break down question formats and key wording to recognize common themes in neurological NCLEX questions.

  3. Apply clinical reasoning to neuro NCLEX RN questions -

    Use step-by-step logic to interpret patient data, prioritize interventions, and choose the most appropriate answer.

  4. Identify hallmark signs of multiple sclerosis -

    Recognize clinical features and management strategies to confidently answer nclex multiple sclerosis questions.

  5. Evaluate synaptic transmission mechanisms -

    Assess neurotransmitter pathways and synaptic processes relevant to neurological NCLEX scenarios.

  6. Recall essential neuroanatomy for exam success -

    Memorize key brain structures and spinal cord functions to support accurate responses on the NCLEX exam.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Mastering Cranial Nerves -

    When tackling neuro nclex questions on cranial nerve function, use the classic mnemonic "On Old Olympus's Towering Tops, A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops" to remember names I - XII. Pair each nerve with its primary function (Sensory, Motor, or Both) to quickly answer neurological nclex questions with confidence.

  2. Unlocking Synaptic Transmission -

    Neuro nclex rn questions often test the sequence: action potential, Ca2+ influx, vesicle fusion, neurotransmitter release, receptor binding, and reuptake. Recall "SAP-VR" (Stimulus, Action potential, P-pack Ca2+, Vesicle fusion, Receptor, Reuptake) as a quick guide when facing complex synaptic scenarios.

  3. Multiple Sclerosis Pathophysiology -

    For nclex multiple sclerosis questions, remember MS is an autoimmune attack on CNS myelin, leading to conduction delays, visual disturbances, and motor weakness. Use the acronym "DAMAGE" (Demyelination, Autoimmune, Myelin, Axon, Glial scars, Electrophysiology) to frame your understanding and differentiate MS from peripheral neuropathies.

  4. Glasgow Coma Scale Essentials -

    Neurological nclex questions frequently ask for the GCS formula: GCS = E(1 - 4)+V(1 - 5)+M(1 - 6). A combined score ≤8 indicates severe impairment, so practicing quick calculation under pressure will boost your speed and accuracy.

  5. CPP and ICP Dynamics -

    In neuro nclex questions on intracranial pressure management, apply the formula CPP = MAP - ICP, aiming for a CPP of 60 - 100 mmHg to ensure adequate perfusion. Mnemonic "C is for Caution" reminds you that a rising ICP drops CPP, so interventions focus on reducing ICP (e.g., mannitol, hyperventilation).

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