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Ready for Mental Health NCLEX Questions? Start the Quiz!

Think you can ace psychiatric nursing practice and schizophrenia NCLEX questions? Dive in now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art quiz on mental health NCLEX psychiatric nursing and schizophrenia questions on dark blue background

Calling all nursing students! Ready to tackle mental health NCLEX questions with confidence? Our free scored quiz empowers you to test your grasp of NCLEX RN mental health questions and deep-dive into schizophrenia NCLEX questions, sharpening your clinical judgment for psychiatric nursing practice. You'll reinforce core concepts of mental health nursing questions in real-world scenarios, track your score instantly, and identify top review areas. Plus, boost your prep with our mental health nursing practice questions and explore additional psychiatric nursing questions . Take the quiz now and step up your exam game!

Which of the following is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Auditory hallucinations
Avolition
Social withdrawal
Flat affect
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include perceptual distortions such as hallucinations and delusions. Auditory hallucinations are the most common type in schizophrenia. Negative symptoms like flat affect and avolition reflect a deficit of normal function. Learn more about schizophrenia symptoms.
A flat affect in a patient with schizophrenia is an example of which type of symptom?
Cognitive symptom
Negative symptom
Positive symptom
Mood symptom
Negative symptoms refer to the absence or reduction of normal behaviors, such as flat affect, alogia, and avolition. Flat affect is a diminished expression of emotion. Positive symptoms, in contrast, add abnormal experiences like hallucinations. Read about negative symptoms.
Which extrapyramidal side effect is characterized by sustained muscle contractions and abnormal postures?
Dystonia
Parkinsonism
Tardive dyskinesia
Akathisia
Acute dystonia presents with sustained, often painful muscle contractions, causing abnormal postures. It typically occurs within days of starting antipsychotic therapy. Parkinsonism includes tremor and rigidity, while akathisia is a sense of inner restlessness. Details on EPS.
Which antipsychotic medication is most closely associated with agranulocytosis requiring weekly blood monitoring?
Haloperidol
Risperidone
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia due to its risk of agranulocytosis. Patients require regular absolute neutrophil count monitoring to prevent severe infections. Other antipsychotics have lower rates of this adverse effect. Clozapine prescribing information.
Which neurotransmitter dysregulation is most implicated in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia?
Dopamine excess in mesolimbic pathways
Glutamate underactivity in basal ganglia
Serotonin deficiency in frontal cortex
GABA overactivity in hippocampus
The dopamine hypothesis suggests excess dopamine activity in mesolimbic pathways contributes to positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Antipsychotics work by blocking D2 receptors to reduce this activity. Other neurotransmitter systems may also play roles, but dopamine is primary. NIMH on schizophrenia neurobiology.
Avolition in a patient with schizophrenia refers to:
Inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed activity
Lack of logical speech
Inability to experience pleasure
Difficulty concentrating
Avolition is a negative symptom characterized by decreased motivation and inability to initiate purposeful activities. It often leads to poor self-care and social withdrawal. Anhedonia refers specifically to inability to feel pleasure. Negative symptoms overview.
Which class of therapy is recommended as an adjunct to medication in managing schizophrenia?
Electroconvulsive therapy
Cognitive behavioral therapy
Psychoanalysis
Aversion therapy
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) can help patients challenge distorted thoughts, improve coping, and reduce relapse. It is evidence-based as an adjunct to pharmacotherapy. Psychoanalysis and aversion therapy are not standard treatments for schizophrenia. CBT in schizophrenia.
To meet DSM-5 criteria for schizophrenia, symptoms must be present for at least:
6 months
1 month
3 months
12 months
DSM-5 requires at least 6 months of continuous signs of disturbance, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms. This duration distinguishes schizophrenia from brief psychotic and schizophreniform disorders. Early diagnosis and treatment improve outcomes. DSM-5 criteria.
A patient reports that the television is speaking directly to them. This is an example of which type of delusion?
Grandiose delusion
Ideas of reference
Persecutory delusion
Somatic delusion
Ideas of reference involve believing neutral events reference oneself. Interpreting TV messages as directed at the patient exemplifies this. Persecutory delusions involve being targeted or harmed. NIMH delusion types.
Which priority nursing intervention is indicated for a patient experiencing command hallucinations to harm others?
Teach relaxation techniques
Assign reading activities
Encourage verbalization of feelings
Ensure patient safety through increased observation
Command hallucinations to harm pose a high risk. The nurse's first action is to ensure safety through frequent observation or one-to-one monitoring. Therapeutic communication follows once safety is established. Management of command hallucinations.
A patient on long-term haloperidol therapy develops involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Tardive dyskinesia
Akathisia
Acute dystonia
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Tardive dyskinesia presents after months or years of antipsychotic use with repetitive involuntary movements. Acute dystonia occurs within days, and akathisia presents as restlessness. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves rigidity and fever. Tardive dyskinesia review.
Which laboratory test is essential for a patient starting clozapine therapy?
Electrolyte panel
Fasting blood glucose
Liver function tests
Absolute neutrophil count
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, so weekly absolute neutrophil count monitoring is mandatory. Other labs are important for general health but not specific to clozapine's major risk. Clozapine monitoring protocol.
Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Lip smacking and tongue movements
Lead-pipe rigidity and hyperthermia
Restlessness and pacing
Bradykinesia and drooling
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome features severe muscle rigidity ('lead-pipe'), high fever, and autonomic instability. Parkinsonian-like features and tardive movements are different EPS. Early recognition is critical. NMS overview.
Which psychosocial intervention helps families learn coping and communication strategies with a schizophrenia patient?
Family psychoeducation
Sensory integration therapy
Aversion therapy
Group art therapy
Family psychoeducation teaches families about the illness, coping skills, and communication techniques. This intervention reduces relapse rates and improves family functioning. Other therapies may be supportive but are less evidence-based for families. NAMI on family interventions.
Which symptom cluster does impaired executive functioning in schizophrenia belong to?
Negative symptoms
Cognitive symptoms
Affective symptoms
Positive symptoms
Cognitive symptoms include impairments in attention, memory, and executive function. These deficits often persist even when positive symptoms are controlled. Negative symptoms involve emotional and motivational deficits. Learn about cognitive symptoms.
Akathisia is best characterized by which of the following?
Slow, shuffling gait
Sustained muscle contractions
Involuntary facial movements
Inability to sit still and inner restlessness
Akathisia is an EPS marked by subjective inner restlessness and an objective need to move. It often leads to pacing or rocking behaviors. Acute dystonia and tardive dyskinesia have different presentations. EPS management.
Which atypical antipsychotic has the highest risk of weight gain and metabolic syndrome?
Ziprasidone
Aripiprazole
Olanzapine
Lurasidone
Olanzapine is associated with significant weight gain, dyslipidemia, and increased diabetes risk. Ziprasidone has a more favorable metabolic profile. Aripiprazole and lurasidone also carry lower metabolic risks. Metabolic effects of antipsychotics.
A patient with schizophrenia misses multiple doses of oral antipsychotics. The provider orders a long-acting injectable. Which benefit is most accurate?
Reduces all extrapyramidal side effects
Improves adherence and maintains steady drug levels
Prevents all relapses permanently
Eliminates risk of metabolic syndrome
Long-acting injectables improve medication adherence by reducing dosing frequency and ensure stable plasma levels. They do not eliminate metabolic or EPS risks and cannot guarantee permanent relapse prevention. LAI antipsychotics review.
How is schizoaffective disorder differentiated from schizophrenia?
Major mood episode present for a substantial portion alongside psychosis
Absence of negative symptoms
Better response to first-generation antipsychotics
Delusions lasting less than 1 month
Schizoaffective disorder requires a major mood episode (depressive or manic) concurrent with psychotic symptoms and mood symptoms for a substantial portion of the illness. In schizophrenia, mood symptoms may occur but are not prominent. DSM-5 schizoaffective criteria.
Which speech pattern is characterized by sudden derailment from one topic to another unrelated topic?
Loosening of associations
Clang associations
Tangentiality
Word salad
Loosening of associations involves shifting between unrelated topics without logical connection. Tangentiality includes answers that veer off but eventually return to the topic. Word salad is incoherent mixture of words. Thought disorders in schizophrenia.
Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing acute agitation?
Isolate the patient without explanation
Offer decaf tea and encourage journaling
Restrict fluids for 4 hours
Administer intramuscular antipsychotic and provide a low-stimulation environment
An IM antipsychotic can rapidly reduce agitation, and a low-stimulation setting decreases environmental triggers. Other measures like journaling or tea are too passive for acute agitation. Isolation without explanation can exacerbate distress. Management of agitation.
Which atypical antipsychotic is known for partial dopamine agonism and fewer metabolic effects?
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Aripiprazole acts as a partial D2 agonist, modulating dopamine activity and causing fewer metabolic side effects. Clozapine and olanzapine carry high metabolic risks. Quetiapine has moderate metabolic effects. Aripiprazole pharmacology.
Monitoring for which adverse effect is necessary when prescribing risperidone?
Significant neutropenia
QT prolongation
Prolactin level elevation
Excessive sedation only
Risperidone can elevate prolactin, leading to galactorrhea and sexual dysfunction. While all antipsychotics can cause sedation, monitoring prolactin is specific for risperidone. Agranulocytosis is rare with risperidone. Risperidone adverse effects.
A patient on high-dose chlorpromazine develops confusion, high fever, unstable blood pressure, and irregular pulse. Laboratory results show elevated CPK. Which is the priority intervention?
Increase fluid restriction to reduce BP
Discontinue antipsychotic immediately and initiate cooling measures
Administer benztropine and continue monitoring
Switch to another first-generation antipsychotic
These signs are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a life-threatening reaction requiring immediate cessation of antipsychotic and aggressive cooling. Benztropine treats EPS but not NMS. Fluid restriction worsens hypotension. NEJM on NMS.
Which mechanism explains why second-generation antipsychotics have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to first-generation agents?
Peripheral dopamine agonism
Selective noradrenergic blockade
Greater affinity for D1 receptors only
Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism modulates dopamine blockade
Second-generation antipsychotics block both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A receptors. Serotonin antagonism increases dopamine release in nigrostriatal pathways, reducing EPS. First-generation drugs primarily block D2 receptors. SGA receptor profile.
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand core psychiatric nursing concepts -

    Interpret fundamental principles tested in mental health NCLEX questions to build a solid knowledge base in psychiatric nursing.

  2. Apply strategies to schizophrenia NCLEX questions -

    Utilize clinical reasoning and evidence-based interventions when approaching schizophrenia NCLEX questions to ensure accurate responses.

  3. Analyze NCLEX RN mental health scenarios -

    Break down complex patient cases in NCLEX RN mental health questions to identify priorities and make sound nursing judgments.

  4. Evaluate psychiatric nursing practice questions -

    Assess best practices and ethical considerations in psychiatric nursing practice questions to support holistic, patient-centered care.

  5. Identify targeted interventions under timed conditions -

    Recognize key assessment findings and implement mental health nursing questions interventions efficiently during a timed quiz.

  6. Enhance test-taking and time management skills -

    Develop effective strategies to improve accuracy and confidence when answering scored quiz questions.

Cheat Sheet

  1. DSM-5 Diagnostic Criteria for Schizophrenia -

    Master the DSM-5 requirements: two or more core symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior, negative symptoms) present for at least one month, with six months' total disturbance. Use the mnemonic "DD GoN" (Delusions, Disorganized speech, Grossly disorganized behavior, Negative symptoms) to lock in the four most common domains. A clear grasp of these criteria will boost your confidence when facing schizophrenia NCLEX questions.

  2. Therapeutic Communication Techniques (SOLER) -

    Apply active listening and open-ended questions using the SOLER framework: Sit squarely, maintain an Open posture, Lean forward, Eye contact, and Relax. This mnemonic ensures a respectful, empathic approach in psychiatric nursing practice questions. Consistently practicing SOLER will make NCLEX RN mental health questions feel less daunting.

  3. Antipsychotic Side Effects & AIMS Monitoring -

    Differentiate typical vs. atypical antipsychotics and their EPS risk using the "PATA" mnemonic: Pseudo-Parkinsonism, Akathisia, Acute dystonia, Tardive dyskinesia. Regularly perform the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) to quantify EPS and adjust medication promptly. This systematic approach is essential for mental health NCLEX questions on pharmacological management.

  4. Suicide Risk Assessment with SAD PERSONS -

    Employ the SAD PERSONS mnemonic (Sex, Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol abuse, Rational thinking loss, Social supports lacking, Organized plan, No spouse, Sickness) to gauge suicide risk quickly. Assign one point per factor; a score of ≥7 indicates high risk and need for immediate intervention. Solidifying this tool equips you for psychiatric nursing practice questions on safety and crisis management.

  5. Therapeutic Milieu & Environment Management -

    Understand the five components of a therapeutic milieu: containment, support, structure, involvement, and validation. For example, creating a daily activity schedule fosters structure and reduces anxiety in mental health nursing questions. Emphasizing these principles will help you excel in both free scored quiz scenarios and real-world psychiatric settings.

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