Unlock hundreds more features
Save your Quiz to the Dashboard
View and Export Results
Use AI to Create Quizzes and Analyse Results

OR
Sign inSign in with Facebook
Sign inSign in with Google
Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Surgical Tech Practice Exam: Test Your CST Skills Free

Think you can ace it? Dive into this free cst exam practice test and prove your surgical tech know-how!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration for surgical tech practice exam quiz on a sky blue background

Are you ready to master your surgical tech practice exam? Our free surgical technologist practice exam gives you realistic CST-style questions to sharpen your skills, build confidence, and ensure you're fully prepared for the big day. This free cst exam practice test covers essential topics in anatomy, instrumentation, and sterile techniques so you can tackle every question with ease. Whether you're seeking a surgical tech practice exam free tool or aiming to excel on the certification test for surgical technologist, we've got you covered. Dive in now and jumpstart your success - click through the cst practice exam or try the surgical technologist practice exam to begin!

What is the recommended contact time for a surgical hand scrub according to AORN guidelines?
2 - 6 minutes
30 seconds
10 minutes
1 minute
AORN recommends a surgical hand scrub contact time of 2 - 6 minutes to effectively reduce microbial flora. This duration ensures thorough antisepsis of hands and forearms. Shorter scrubs may not remove transient flora adequately. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-surgical-hand-antisepsis
Which instrument is primarily used to grasp or hold tissue during surgery?
Backhaus towel clamp
Metzenbaum scissors
Kelly clamp
Adson tissue forceps
Adson tissue forceps have fine, serrated tips ideal for grasping delicate tissues without causing significant trauma. Kelly clamps are hemostats, Metzenbaum scissors are for cutting, and Backhaus clamps secure drapes. Proper instrument selection is essential for tissue handling. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/instruments/adson-tissue-tong-forceps
Which needle gauge creates the smallest puncture in tissue?
20-gauge
16-gauge
30-gauge
25-gauge
Higher gauge needles have smaller diameters; thus a 25-gauge needle creates a smaller hole than 16 or 20 gauge. A 30-gauge is smaller still, but 25-gauge is commonly used for fine infiltration. Choosing the correct gauge minimizes tissue trauma. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3505409/
Universal precautions require treating all of the following as potentially infectious EXCEPT:
Cerebrospinal fluid
Blood
Saliva
Sweat
Universal precautions consider blood, certain body fluids like CSF and saliva potentially infectious. Sweat is not listed as a potentially infectious fluid under CDC guidelines. This helps protect against bloodborne pathogens. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/bloodborne-pathogens/index.html
Before incision, how many sponge counts must the surgical technologist verify with the circulator?
Three
None
Two
One
AORN and AST standards require two independent sponge counts before incision. This reduces the risk of retained surgical items. Additional counts occur at wound closure and cavity closure. https://www.ast.org/Practice-Management/Standards-Principles-Guidelines/Sponge-Count/
Which area of the surgical gown is considered sterile?
Entire back
Neckline
Waistband
Sleeves from shoulder to cuff
The sterile area of a gown includes the sleeves from shoulder to cuff and the front from chest to level of sterile field. The back and neckline are considered contaminated. Proper gowning protects the sterile field. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-prevention-of-surgical-site-infection
At what temperature and pressure does a standard steam autoclave sterilize instruments?
150°C at 20 psi
121°C at 15 psi
100°C at 5 psi
134°C at 29 psi
A standard gravity-displacement autoclave operates at 121°C (250°F) and 15 psi for at least 15 minutes for sterilization. Higher-temperature flash cycles exist but are not standard for all loads. Proper parameters ensure microbial kill. https://www.aami.org/aamiresources/standards/standardspamphlets/
Which action is the first step in a surgical hand scrub?
Wash under nails
Dry with towel
Lather forearms
Rinse hands
The first step is to clean under the fingernails with a nail pick to remove debris. Then lather hands and forearms for the required contact time. Proper technique reduces resident and transient flora. https://www.who.int/gpsc/5may/tools/WHO_GPSC-Handrub-Formulation.pdf
What method of hair removal before surgery is recommended to reduce surgical site infection risk?
Shaving with razor
Waxing
Chemical depilatory
Clipping with electric clippers
Clipping hair with electric clippers causes fewer microabrasions and lowers infection risk compared to razors. Razors can create microscopic cuts that harbor bacteria. Clipping should be done immediately before surgery. https://www.cdc.gov/hai/prevent/styles-of-hair-removal.html
In which direction should sterile drapes be unfolded to maintain asepsis?
Any direction
Sideways
Toward self
Away from self
Sterile drapes must be unfolded away from the sterile person to avoid contaminating the drape edge. Toward self risks touching the sterile side. Proper draping maintains the sterile field. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-perioperative-visualization
Which color change on a steam sterilization indicator tape signifies successful sterilization?
Yellow to black
Red to blue
White to pink
Green to orange
Steam indicator tape has stripes that change from yellow to black when exposed to adequate temperature and steam. It provides external confirmation of sterilization conditions. Other color patterns are for different indicator types. https://www.cdc.gov/hai/prevent/sterile-processing.html
What is the primary role of the surgical technologist in the operating room?
Administer anesthesia
Perform surgical incisions
Monitor vital signs
Pass instruments and maintain sterile field
Surgical technologists prepare the OR, pass instruments, manage supplies, and maintain the sterile field. They do not administer anesthesia or perform incisions. Their role is vital for safe, efficient surgery. https://www.ast.org/Practice-Management/About-the-Profession/What-is-a-Surgical-Technologist/
What is the function of a hemostatic clamp?
Cut tissue
Retract tissue
Occlude bleeding vessels
Suture vessels
Hemostatic clamps, such as Kelly or Mosquito, are used to compress and occlude blood vessels to control bleeding. They are not used to cut, suture, or retract tissue. Proper use supports hemostasis during surgery. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/instruments/kelly-clamp
Why is a fluid warmer used during surgery?
Prevent hypothermia
Sterilize fluids
Prevent infection
Increase blood viscosity
Warming IV fluids helps maintain patient core temperature and prevents hypothermia, which can lead to coagulopathy and increased infection risk. It does not sterilize fluids or increase viscosity. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/perioperative-temperature-management
Where should sharps disposal containers be placed in the operating room?
In the hallway
Within arm's reach of the scrubbing person
On the sterile field
At foot of table
Sharps containers must be easily accessible within arm's reach of the scrub person to allow immediate, safe disposal of needles and other sharps. Placing them on the sterile field is a contamination risk. https://www.jstor.org/stable/24728201
Which suture material is monofilament and absorbs by hydrolysis?
Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
Polyglyconate (Maxon)
Silk
Catgut
Polyglyconate (Maxon) is a synthetic monofilament absorbable suture that degrades by hydrolysis. Vicryl is braided and hydrolyzed, catgut is natural and enzymatically absorbed, and silk is nonabsorbable. Monofilament sutures minimize tissue drag. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3215294/
What type of ventilation is required in an operating room to reduce infection risk?
Positive pressure with HEPA filtration
Negative pressure
Recirculated air only
No pressure differential
Operating rooms use positive pressure ventilation with HEPA filtration to keep contaminants out by forcing air outward. Negative pressure is for isolation rooms. Proper airflow reduces airborne microbes. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/environmental/appendix/air.html
What hazard does laser plume present in the OR?
Infection and chemical exposure
Increased noise levels
Electromagnetic interference
Risk of thermal burns only
Laser plume contains particulate matter, toxic chemicals, and viable viral particles, posing inhalation hazards. Smoke evacuators with ultra-low particulate air filters mitigate these risks. Proper PPE and engineering controls are essential. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-lasersafety
Which area of the sterile processing department is designed for cleaning contaminated instruments?
Decontamination area
Sterilization area
Packaging area
Storage area
The decontamination area is physically separated and contains sinks and ultrasonic cleaners for initial cleaning of contaminated instruments. Sterilization and packaging occur after thorough cleaning. Separation prevents cross-contamination. https://www.aami.org/standards
What is the primary purpose of draping a C-arm in the operating room?
Prevent radiation leakage
Maintain sterility around the imaging device
Enhance image quality
Reduce equipment noise
Sterile draping of the C-arm protects the sterile field when the imaging device enters the operating area. It does not affect radiation containment or image quality. Proper draping prevents contamination. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-radiation-safety
At what pressure is a pneumatic tourniquet typically set for lower extremity surgery?
350 - 400 mmHg
50 - 75 mmHg
100 - 150 mmHg
250 - 300 mmHg
Tourniquets for lower extremities are usually inflated to 250 - 300 mmHg to occlude arterial blood flow. Upper extremities require lower pressures (around 100 - 150 mmHg). Proper pressure prevents ischemic injury. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4021572/
What is the advantage of a needle driver with tungsten carbide inserts?
Better grip and durability
Reduced cost
Corrosion resistance only
Lighter weight
Tungsten carbide inserts provide a harder, more durable gripping surface that resists wear and maintains instrument precision longer. They are not lighter or cheaper but enhance function. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/instruments/needle-drivers
During instrument decontamination, ultrasonic cleaners work by:
Mechanical brushing
Thermal agitation
Acoustic cavitation
Chemical oxidation
Ultrasonic cleaners use high-frequency sound waves to create cavitation bubbles that dislodge debris from instruments. Chemical and thermal methods are separate processes. Cavitation effectively cleans complex geometries. https://www.aami.org/standards
Which break in sterile technique requires immediate correction?
Passing an instrument handle first
Touching the sterile gown cuff with a gloved hand
Adding sterile solution to a sterile bowl
Placing instruments on a Mayo stand
Touching the sterile gown cuff with a gloved hand contaminates the sterile field and requires immediate correction. The cuff edge is considered nonsterile. Other actions listed are acceptable if performed correctly. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-surgical-field-safety
Which catheter is commonly used to monitor central venous pressure?
Central venous catheter (CVC)
Foley catheter
Swan-Ganz catheter
Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
A central venous catheter (CVC) is placed in a large central vein and used to monitor central venous pressure. Swan-Ganz catheters measure pulmonary artery pressures. PICC lines are peripheral central catheters used for long-term access. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK537317/
What is the risk associated with powdered surgical gloves?
Allergic reactions and granulomas
Reduced barrier protection
Improved grip
Increased tear resistance
Powder in gloves can cause postoperative granulomas, intraperitoneal adhesions, and allergic reactions. Most facilities use powder-free gloves to avoid these complications. AORN discourages powdered gloves. https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/topics/allergies/glove.html
Which biological indicator is used for steam sterilization monitoring?
Bacillus stearothermophilus spores
Geobacillus subtilis spores
Bacillus atrophaeus spores
Clostridium difficile spores
Bacillus stearothermophilus spores are highly resistant to moist heat and used as a biological indicator for steam sterilization. Bacillus atrophaeus is used for dry heat and ethylene oxide. Using the correct strain validates the sterilization process. https://www.cdc.gov/hai/prevent/sterile-processing.html
What element completes the fire triangle in the OR alongside fuel and heat?
Oxygen
Smoke
Carbon dioxide
Moisture
The three elements of the fire triangle are heat, fuel, and oxidizer - typically oxygen. In the OR, lasers and electrosurgical units provide heat, drapes and prep solutions are fuels, and oxygen enriches the environment. Removing any element prevents fires. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-fire-prevention-in-the-operating-room
If a sponge count is incorrect at wound closure, what is the next step?
Proceed and document discrepancy
Perform intraoperative X-ray
Add more sponges and recount
Close the wound half way
An incorrect instrument or sponge count requires stopping and performing an intraoperative radiograph to locate any missing items before closure. Documenting without locating the item is not sufficient. Patient safety demands verification. https://www.jstor.org/stable/24728201
Which door in the sterile processing area helps prevent cross-contamination between dirty and clean zones?
Single swing door
Half door
No door separation
Pass-through (interlocking) door
Interlocking pass-through doors allow one door to open at a time, preventing airborne contaminants from moving between decontamination and sterile storage areas. Single doors risk airflow mixing. Proper design maintains separation. https://www.aami.org/standards
Which high-level disinfectant is commonly used for flexible endoscope reprocessing?
Isopropyl alcohol
Formalin
Glutaraldehyde
Hydrogen peroxide 3%
Glutaraldehyde at 2% - 3.4% concentration is FDA-approved for high-level disinfection of flexible endoscopes. It kills bacteria, viruses, and spores with adequate contact time. Other agents are either low-level or not suitable. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/disinfection/index.html
What is the recommended aeration time after ethylene oxide sterilization?
12 - 48 hours
No aeration required
4 - 12 hours
1 hour
After EO sterilization, items must aerate for 12 - 48 hours to allow residual gas (ethylene oxide and by-products) to dissipate below safe levels. Insufficient aeration risks patient exposure to toxic residues. https://www.aami.org/standards
Between chromic gut and plain gut sutures, which lasts longer in tissue?
They last the same
Neither is absorbable
Chromic gut
Plain gut
Chromic gut is treated with chromium salts to prolong absorption (up to 90 days) and reduce tissue reaction compared to plain gut, which absorbs within 7 - 10 days. Treatment slows enzymatic degradation. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3215294/
Which instrument is best for cutting bone in orthopedic surgery?
Bard-Parker handle
Osteotome
Senn retractor
Metzenbaum scissors
An osteotome is a chisel-like instrument used to cut or shape bone. Metzenbaum scissors cut soft tissue, a Bard-Parker handle holds blades, and Senn retractors retract tissue. Proper tool selection prevents damage. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/instruments/osteotome
How does a vessel-sealing device achieve hemostasis?
Mechanical pressure only
Ultrasonic vibration
Combination of pressure and bipolar energy
Thermal cautery tip
Vessel-sealing devices use a combination of pressure and controlled bipolar electrical energy to denature collagen and elastin, sealing vessels up to 7 mm in diameter. This provides reliable hemostasis. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/energy-devices
What distinguishes monopolar from bipolar electrosurgery?
Monopolar current passes between two forceps tines
Both function identically
Bipolar uses a grounding pad
Monopolar requires a dispersive pad, bipolar confines current between instrument tips
Monopolar electrosurgery uses an active electrode and a dispersive grounding pad, allowing current to travel through the body. Bipolar confines the current between two tines of forceps, eliminating need for a pad. This reduces stray current injury. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/energy-devices
What is the preferred insufflation gas for laparoscopic procedures?
Nitrogen
Air
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
CO? is colorless, noncombustible, highly soluble in blood, and easily absorbed, making it the safest insufflation gas for laparoscopy. Air and oxygen can cause emboli or support combustion. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-laparoscopic-surgery
Which complication is associated with carbon dioxide insufflation in laparoscopy?
Hypoventilation
Hypoglycemia
Hypercapnia
Hypokalemia
CO? absorbed from the peritoneal cavity can lead to hypercapnia and acidosis if ventilation is not adjusted. Anesthesia teams monitor end-tidal CO? and ventilate accordingly. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4484558/
What engineering control reduces surgical smoke exposure?
Using fans
Local exhaust ventilation (smoke evacuator)
Opening OR doors
General room airflow
Smoke evacuators placed close to the surgical site capture and filter hazardous plume before it disperses. General ventilation is not sufficient to remove concentrated smoke. Compliance with OSHA guidelines protects staff. https://www.osha.gov/SLTC/lasersurgery/standards.html
Which principle is critical for radiation safety when using a C-arm?
Keep detector under patient
Use shielding and maximize distance
Minimize distance from the source
Use highest pulse rate
The radiation safety principles are time, distance, and shielding. Increasing distance and using lead aprons and barriers minimize exposure. Pulse mode and proper detector positioning also reduce dose. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-radiation-safety
What monitoring technique assesses spinal cord integrity during high-risk spine surgery?
Arterial line pressure
Electromyography (EMG) and somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)
Capnography
Pulse oximetry
EMG and SSEPs monitor neural pathways by stimulating peripheral nerves and recording responses in the spinal cord and cortex. Changes indicate potential spinal cord compromise. These methods help prevent neurologic injury. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/toolbox/neuromonitoring
Which factor is most important when selecting a prosthetic heart valve size?
Patient's age alone
Patient's height only
Surgeon's preference
Patient's body surface area and aortic annulus diameter
Valve size selection is based on the patient's body surface area and the measured annulus diameter to ensure optimal hemodynamics and prevent patient - prosthesis mismatch. Height or age alone are insufficient. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6947551/
Which indicator confirms valid ethylene oxide sterilization?
Tape color change only
Bacillus atrophaeus spores
Biological indicators with Bacillus subtilis var. niger
Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores
Which biofilm removal technique is recommended before sterilization?
Soaking in 70% alcohol
Dry heat before cleaning
Rinse with sterile water only
Mechanical cleaning with enzymatic detergent
Mechanical cleaning with enzymatic detergents breaks down organic debris and biofilms, facilitating effective sterilization. Alcohol soaking or water rinse alone cannot remove biofilms. Proper precleaning is essential. https://www.aami.org/standards
What is the main concern when preparing the surgical site for a ventriculoperitoneal shunt?
Avoiding hair removal
Using only alcohol prep
Ensuring bilateral site antisepsis across both cranial and abdominal areas
Positioning patient prone
VP shunt surgery involves cranial and abdominal incisions, so prepping must cover both sites with appropriate antiseptics. Alcohol alone is insufficient; chlorhexidine or povidone - iodine is preferred. Comprehensive prep reduces infection risk. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK538518/
Which parameter is critical for ethylene oxide sterilization efficacy?
No aeration needed post sterilization
Relative humidity between 30 - 40%
Relative humidity of 30 - 60% and temperature of 50 - 60°C
Gas concentration of 100% EO
Ethylene oxide sterilization requires 30 - 60% relative humidity, 50 - 60°C, and appropriate gas concentration (usually mixed with inert gases) to effectively penetrate packaging and kill microbes. Proper aeration follows. https://www.aami.org/standards
According to AAMI ST79, what is the maximum allowable retention time for critical instruments before sterilization after decontamination?
48 hours
7 days
1 hour
24 hours
AAMI ST79 recommends that cleaned instruments be processed (disposed, packaged, and sterilized) within 24 hours of decontamination to prevent bioburden accumulation. Delays beyond this time may increase contamination risk. https://www.aami.org/standards
What is the preferred method for removing thick biofilm from rigid endoscopes before high-level disinfection?
Steam autoclaving
Manual brushing with detergent
Alcohol wipe
Ultrasonic cleaning only
Manual brushing with an appropriate enzymatic detergent is necessary to remove biofilm and debris from lumens and channels of endoscopes. Ultrasonic cleaning aids but is not a substitute. Proper cleaning ensures effective disinfection. https://www.cdc.gov/hai/prevent/endoscope-reprocessing.html
Which site preparation protocol is optimal for cytoreductive surgery with HIPEC?
Use sterile water slurry
Sequential chlorhexidine - alcohol prepping over entire torso
Abdominal prep only
Iodine paint only on incision site
Cytoreductive surgery with HIPEC involves large abdominal exposure, so sequential chlorhexidine - alcohol over the entire torso reduces microbial load effectively. Alcohol preps have rapid kill and chlorhexidine offers residual activity. https://www.aorn.org/guidelines/guideline-for-surgical-site-infection
How should cytotoxic drug waste be disposed of in the OR?
In regular biohazard waste bags
Mixed with sharps in red bins
In designated, puncture-resistant, yellow cytotoxic waste containers
Down the sink with flush water
Cytotoxic drug waste requires disposal in special, clearly labeled, puncture-resistant yellow containers to prevent occupational exposure. It must follow USP <797> and hazardous waste regulations. Mixing with regular or sharps waste is unsafe. https://www.nap.edu/read/1701/chapter/7
0
{"name":"What is the recommended contact time for a surgical hand scrub according to AORN guidelines?", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"What is the recommended contact time for a surgical hand scrub according to AORN guidelines?, Which instrument is primarily used to grasp or hold tissue during surgery?, Which needle gauge creates the smallest puncture in tissue?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}

Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Exam Structure -

    Gain familiarity with the surgical tech practice exam format, question types, and time management strategies to optimize your performance on the CST test.

  2. Apply Aseptic Techniques -

    Practice maintaining sterile fields and implementing infection-control protocols through realistic scenario-based questions on this free surgical tech practice exam.

  3. Identify Surgical Instruments -

    Recognize common OR tools and their functions, enabling quick selection and proper handling under exam conditions.

  4. Analyze Patient Safety Protocols -

    Evaluate critical steps in patient positioning, monitoring, and emergency response to reinforce safety measures for certification test for surgical technologist.

  5. Interpret Procedural Workflows -

    Break down step-by-step surgical procedures to strengthen your ability to answer detailed questions on the cst practice exam free.

  6. Evaluate Performance Gaps -

    Use feedback from the free cst exam practice test to identify areas for improvement and tailor your study plan effectively.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Aseptic Technique Principles -

    Review the "STERILE" mnemonic (Surfaces, Equipment, Revalidation, Turn-away, Restricted traffic, Isolation, Layers, Elbow-wash) endorsed by CDC and AORN to reinforce no-touch zones and correct gown/glove protocols. Proper hand hygiene, donning PPE, and maintaining the sterile field are foundational to preventing surgical site infections (AST Standards).

  2. Surgical Instrument Classification -

    Master the four main categories - cutting, grasping/holding, clamping/occluding, and retracting - and use the "CLIP" memory aid: Cutting, Ligating, Instrument-holding, and Preventing bleeding. Familiarity with common names (e.g., Metzenbaum scissors vs. Mayo scissors) and count procedures per AORN guidelines reduces OR errors.

  3. Patient Positioning & Pressure Point Protection -

    Understand the ASA's positioning guidelines to prevent nerve damage and pressure ulcers; key points include proper padding of ulnar nerve sites and heel relief. Use checklists from surgical nursing journals to confirm neutral joint alignment and continuous monitoring for compartment syndrome risks.

  4. Sterilization Methods & Parameters -

    Know steam sterilization standards: 121°C at 15 psi for 30 minutes or 134°C at 30 psi for 3 minutes per CDC and AAMI ST79. Differentiate the "Critical-Semi-Non" instrument categories to apply correct sterilization (critical items require sterilization, semi-critical need high-level disinfection).

  5. Pharmacology of Anesthetics & Reversal Agents -

    Study common agents like propofol, sevoflurane, and succinylcholine, and their pharmacokinetics from the ASA handbook. Remember the "ABCD" reversal mnemonic: Anticholinesterase (neostigmine), Blocker decoupler (sugammadex), Calcium (for magnesium-induced blockade), and Don't forget anticholinergics (glycopyrrolate) to counter bradycardia.

Make a Quiz (FREE) Copy & Edit This Quiz Create a Quiz with AI

Human Anatomy & Medicine Quizzes

Powered by: Quiz Maker