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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Ace the Fundamentals of Nursing Test 2 Practice Quiz

Ready to tackle this nursing fundamentals practice test? Dive in and challenge yourself!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
paper illustration showing nurse icons stethoscope clipboard Fundamentals of Nursing Test 2 on golden yellow background

Ready to boost your clinical confidence? Challenge Yourself: Fundamentals of Nursing Test 2 Quiz lets you sharpen core skills and reinforce key nursing principles. Brush up on fundamentals of nursing practice questions or test recall with nursing fundamentals flashcards, then get instant feedback to guide your progress. Designed for nursing students and new grads, explore real-world scenarios through our free Fundamentals of Nursing Quiz . Dive in and tackle the nursing fundamentals quiz to see your score on this nursing fundamentals practice test. Take the quiz now and elevate your skills!

What is the recommended duration for handwashing with soap and water to reduce microbial transmission?
10 seconds
30 seconds
5 seconds
15 seconds
The CDC recommends at least 15 seconds of vigorous handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens. Shorter durations have been shown to be less effective in microbial removal. Proper technique and duration are essential for infection control. https://www.cdc.gov/handwashing/why-handwashing.html
What is the normal adult respiratory rate at rest?
20-28 breaths per minute
30-40 breaths per minute
12-20 breaths per minute
8-12 breaths per minute
A normal adult respiratory rate is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute at rest. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory distress or other underlying conditions. This range is used as a baseline in patient assessments. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482273/
Which temperature site provides the most accurate estimate of core body temperature?
Axillary
Oral
Temporal
Tympanic
Tympanic temperature measurement closely reflects core body temperature because the tympanic membrane shares blood supply with the hypothalamus. Oral and axillary sites are more influenced by external factors and are less precise. Tympanic thermometers provide rapid and reliable readings. https://www.who.int/medical_devices/links/390/en/
What is the first step in the nursing process?
Implementation
Evaluation
Planning
Assessment
Assessment is the initial step of the nursing process where data about the patient's health status is collected. Accurate assessment lays the foundation for planning, implementation, and evaluation. Omitting thorough assessment can lead to ineffective care planning. https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/nursing-excellence/official-position-statements/id/assessment/
A patient's pulse oximetry reads 92% on room air. What should the nurse do first?
Reassess sensor placement
Increase IV fluids
Call the provider
Administer oxygen
Before intervening based on a pulse oximetry reading, the nurse should verify proper sensor placement and ensure there is no artifact. Misplaced or loose sensors can produce inaccurate readings. Once accuracy is confirmed, further interventions can be considered. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3312507/
When repositioning a bed-bound patient, how often should pressure areas be relieved to prevent skin breakdown?
Every 4 hours
Every 6 hours
Once per shift
Every 2 hours
To prevent pressure ulcers, patients at risk should be repositioned at least every two hours. This schedule helps redistribute pressure and maintain skin integrity. Longer intervals increase the risk of tissue ischemia. https://www.npuap.org/resources/educational-and-clinical-resources/prevention/
Which sterile technique principle must be followed to maintain a sterile field?
Cross arms over chest
Keep hands above waist level
Turn your back to the sterile field
Touch only the outside 1-inch border
Maintaining hands above waist level ensures that the sterile field remains uncontaminated by objects below the level of sterility. Touching the outside border or turning away breaches sterility. This principle is foundational to aseptic technique. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/disinfection/sterilization/sterile-barrier-systems.html
Which personal protective equipment is required when implementing contact precautions?
Mask and gown
Face shield and gloves
Gown and gloves
Mask and gloves
Contact precautions require gown and gloves to prevent transmission of pathogens through direct or indirect contact. Masks and eye protection are added for droplet or airborne precautions. Proper donning and doffing of PPE reduce infection risk. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/basics/transmission-based-precautions.html
When documenting in the patient record, what is the correct method for making an error correction?
Leave blank spaces unfilled
Use pencil for corrections
Draw a single line through the error, initial and date
Erase the error completely
The correct method is to draw a single line through the error, write your initials, and date the correction. This maintains the integrity of the medical record and complies with legal standards. Erasing or using pencil is unacceptable. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK272771/
Which body mechanics principle helps prevent back injury when lifting a heavy object?
Keeping feet close together
Twisting while lifting
Using leg muscles to lift
Bending at the waist
Using leg muscles by bending at the knees and keeping the back straight reduces spinal stress. Feet should be shoulder-width apart for balance. Twisting or bending at the waist increases the risk of injury. https://www.osha.gov/ergonomics/guidelines
When flushing a peripheral IV catheter with sterile saline, which technique ensures patency without damaging the vein?
Clamp the catheter before flushing
Flush the saline rapidly to clear the line
Flush all at once without pauses
Use a pulsing (push-pause) technique
The push-pause or pulsing technique creates turbulence that clears debris without damaging the vessel wall. Rapid flushing can cause vein irritation and catheter damage. Clamping before flushing prevents saline delivery. https://www.infusionnurse.org/education/position-statements/infusion-therapy-standards-of-practice/
In which stage of pressure ulcer development is there partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and/or dermis?
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Stage II pressure ulcers present as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed, indicating partial-thickness loss of dermis. There is no slough or bruising. Proper staging guides appropriate wound care interventions. https://www.npuap.org/resources/educational-and-clinical-resources/pressure-injury-staging/
Which intravenous solution is isotonic to plasma and commonly used for fluid replacement?
0.45% Sodium Chloride
0.9% Sodium Chloride
3% Sodium Chloride
5% Dextrose in Water
0.9% Sodium Chloride (normal saline) is isotonic to plasma and widely used for fluid replacement to maintain intravascular volume. Hypotonic and hypertonic solutions have different uses and should be chosen based on the patient's needs. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482304/
What gauge needle is most appropriate for an adult intramuscular injection to ensure adequate medication flow without tissue damage?
20-22 gauge
18-20 gauge
22-24 gauge
25-27 gauge
A 20-22 gauge needle balances flow rate and patient comfort for intramuscular injections. Larger gauges (lower number) deliver viscous medications more easily but can increase tissue trauma. Very small needles may not deliver medication effectively. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK448098/
When administering a subcutaneous injection, at what angle should the needle be inserted for an average adult with adequate subcutaneous tissue?
60 degrees
15 degrees
90 degrees
45 degrees
A 45-degree angle is commonly used for subcutaneous injections in adults with adequate tissue. This angle ensures the medication is deposited into the subcutaneous layer without reaching muscle. Thinner patients may require 15-degree angles. https://www.cdc.gov/injectionsafety/providers/provider_faqs.html
A patient receiving 4 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula complains of nasal dryness. What is the nurse's best intervention?
Increase the flow rate
Switch to a simple face mask
Add humidification to the tubing
Decrease the flow rate
Adding humidification to oxygen delivery at flows above 4 L/min helps prevent mucosal dryness and discomfort. Face masks can be considered but are not necessary if humidification resolves the issue. Flow adjustments should match the patient's oxygenation needs. https://www.erswhitebook.org/chapters/humidification-and-heating/
Which electrolyte imbalance is suggested by peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram?
Hypokalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Peaked T waves are a hallmark of hyperkalemia due to altered repolarization of ventricular myocardium. Early recognition is critical to prevent arrhythmias. The finding guides prompt potassium-lowering interventions. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK547717/
Which vitamin is essential for collagen synthesis and wound healing?
Vitamin K
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin C is required for hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen formation. Deficiency impairs wound healing and leads to fragile connective tissue. Adequate intake supports tissue repair processes. https://ods.od.nih.gov/factsheets/VitaminC-Consumer/
Which infection requires droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions?
Influenza
MRSA
Measles
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Influenza is transmitted via respiratory droplets, requiring droplet precautions such as mask use within three feet of patients. Measles is airborne and requires a negative-pressure room and N95 respirator. MRSA uses contact precautions. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/basics/transmission-based-precautions.html
If a blood pressure cuff that is too small is used on a patient, how will the reading be affected?
No effect
Falsely high
Falsely low
Unpredictable variation
A cuff that is too small requires higher pressure to occlude the artery, resulting in falsely elevated readings. Proper cuff selection (bladder width ~40% of limb circumference) ensures accuracy. Inaccurate readings can lead to mismanagement. https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/HYPERTENSIONAHA.110.163049
Which clinical finding is most consistent with hypovolemia?
Decreased skin turgor
Bounding pulse
Elevated central venous pressure
Hypertension
Hypovolemia reduces intravascular volume, leading to decreased skin turgor due to loss of subcutaneous fluid. Bounding pulses and elevated CVP are seen in hypervolemia. Hypotension often accompanies hypovolemia. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK459455/
Using the 30 mL/kg fluid requirement method, how much fluid is needed in 24 hours for a 70 kg adult?
1400 mL
2800 mL
1050 mL
2100 mL
The 30 mL/kg rule multiplies body weight by 30 mL; for a 70 kg adult, that equals 2100 mL. This guideline helps estimate baseline fluid needs in clinical settings. Adjustments are made based on clinical condition. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK532273/
What is the primary action of loop diuretics like furosemide?
Decrease glomerular filtration rate
Increase potassium reabsorption in the distal tubule
Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle
Inhibit water reabsorption in the proximal tubule
Loop diuretics block the Na+-K+-2Cl - transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, causing significant natriuresis and diuresis. They are more potent than other diuretic classes. Monitoring electrolytes is essential. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK539741/
During a central line dressing change, which action maintains aseptic technique?
Wearing only sterile gloves
Donning sterile gown, mask, and gloves
Cleaning the site with alcohol only
Replacing dressing without site preparation
Central line dressing changes require full sterile attire including gown, mask, and sterile gloves to prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections. Chlorhexidine is used for skin antisepsis. Partial barriers increase infection risk. https://www.cdc.gov/infectioncontrol/guidelines/bsi/index.html
Which acid-base imbalance is most commonly caused by hyperventilation?
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Hyperventilation expels excessive CO?, reducing PaCO? and raising blood pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Causes include anxiety, pain, and early sepsis. Recognition guides corrective breathing techniques. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK534878/
A patient's serum chloride level is 110 mEq/L. This value is:
Within normal range
Indicative of metabolic alkalosis
Above normal range
Below normal range
Normal serum chloride ranges from 96 to 106 mEq/L. A value of 110 mEq/L indicates hyperchloremia, which can occur with dehydration or certain acid-base disorders. It must be interpreted in context of overall fluid and electrolyte balance. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK541002/
On an ECG, the PR interval represents which part of cardiac conduction?
Atrial repolarization
Ventricular depolarization
Ventricular repolarization
From atrial depolarization to ventricular depolarization
The PR interval measures the time from the start of atrial depolarization (P wave) to the start of ventricular depolarization (QRS complex). It reflects AV nodal conduction time. Prolongation can indicate AV block. https://litfl.com/av-blocks/
Which class of medications should be held if a patient's serum potassium is 5.5 mEq/L?
Antibiotics
Beta blockers
Proton pump inhibitors
ACE inhibitors
ACE inhibitors can further raise potassium levels and risk hyperkalemia complications. If potassium exceeds 5.0 - 5.5 mEq/L, ACE inhibitors are typically held until levels normalize. Monitoring is critical in renal impairment. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK538283/
Patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should avoid which of the following activities?
Leg elevation when sitting
Walking short distances
Prolonged bed rest
Applying warm compresses
Early ambulation and leg exercises are encouraged to reduce clot propagation and improve venous return. Prolonged bed rest increases the risk of additional thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Mobility protocols are preferred. https://www.hematology.org/covid-19/covid-19-and-thrombosis
In a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which complication should the nurse monitor for most closely?
Hypocalcemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
Leukopenia
TPN solutions are high in dextrose, which can lead to hyperglycemia if not monitored closely. Regular blood glucose checks and insulin management protocols help prevent complications. Electrolyte imbalances also require surveillance. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK470206/
An arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO? 50 mmHg, and HCO?? 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
A low pH with elevated PaCO? and normal HCO?? indicates respiratory acidosis due to CO? retention. The kidneys have not yet compensated by increasing bicarbonate. Causes include hypoventilation or pulmonary disease. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK482249/
When analyzing a central venous pressure (CVP) waveform, the c wave corresponds to which event?
Atrial contraction
Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
Ventricular contraction
Rapid ventricular filling
The c wave occurs when the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium at the onset of ventricular systole, causing a transient pressure rise. It follows the a wave (atrial contraction). Recognizing CVP waves aids hemodynamic assessment. https://litfl.com/central-venous-pressure-cvp-waveforms/
During a packed red blood cell transfusion, which transfusion reaction requires immediate cessation of the infusion and is the nurse's top priority?
Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
Allergic urticarial reaction
Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
Acute hemolytic reaction
Acute hemolytic reactions are life-threatening and require immediate cessation of the transfusion, aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for shock. Early signs include fever, flank pain, and hypotension. Rapid action reduces morbidity and mortality. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK519061/
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Core Nursing Concepts -

    Gain a clear grasp of fundamental principles covered in the fundamentals of nursing test 2 and strengthen your foundational knowledge.

  2. Apply Patient Care Protocols -

    Demonstrate the ability to implement essential patient care practices and safety protocols in clinical scenarios.

  3. Identify Common Nursing Practice Questions -

    Recognize and answer typical question formats found in nursing fundamentals quizzes and practice tests.

  4. Analyze Case-Based Scenarios -

    Critically evaluate patient situations to select appropriate interventions and nursing actions.

  5. Utilize Instant Feedback for Improvement -

    Leverage real-time quiz results to pinpoint knowledge gaps and refine study strategies using nursing fundamentals flashcards.

  6. Evaluate Progress and Readiness -

    Assess your performance metrics to determine readiness for exams and guide further review efforts.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Hand Hygiene & Infection Control -

    Follow the WHO's "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene" by cleaning hands before patient contact, before aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, and after touching surroundings. Use the mnemonic "BAPAB" (Before, After, Procedural, After Body fluids) to nail each step. Proper technique can cut healthcare-associated infections by nearly half (CDC, 2021).

  2. Nursing Process & Clinical Judgment -

    Apply the ADPIE framework - Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation - to deliver structured, patient-centered care. Remember "All Dogs Play In Evening" to sequence each core step. This systematic approach aligns with ANA standards and strengthens critical thinking.

  3. Vital Signs & Pain Assessment -

    Memorize the temperature conversion formula: °F = (°C × 9/5) + 32, and practice PQRST (Provokes, Quality, Region, Severity, Time) for thorough pain evaluation. Consistently chart vitals and pain levels to detect early deterioration. Precise measurements support timely interventions and improved patient outcomes.

  4. Medication Administration & Dosage Calculations -

    Use the "D/H × V" formula - Dose ordered ❄ Dose on hand × Volume on hand - to calculate accurate drug dosages. For example, if 500 mg is needed and tablets are 250 mg each, (500/250) × 1 tablet = 2 tablets. Double-check calculations and follow the "Six Rights" (right patient, drug, dose, time, route, and documentation).

  5. Patient Safety & Fall Prevention -

    Implement the Morse Fall Scale to assess risk, scoring factors like history of falls and gait. A score ≥45 indicates high risk, triggering interventions such as bed alarms and hourly rounding. Consistent safety checks and environment modifications reduce fall incidents by up to 30% (JBI Evidence Summary).

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