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Quizzes > Science > Biology

Biology 2 Final Exam Test Quiz - Think You Can Ace It?

Jump into college biology test prep with our general biology quiz!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art collage of cell dna helix leaf and microscope on golden yellow background for biology quiz

Get ready to tackle the biology 2 final exam test with confidence! This free quiz is crafted to test your mastery of cells, genetics and evolution, offering you top-notch biology test prep that goes beyond basic memorization. Hone your skills with general biology quiz questions designed by experts, and explore focused modules for college biology practice test readiness. Dive into our biology semester 2 final exam review for targeted tips, or challenge yourself with the interactive biology part 2 quiz . After you finish, unlock personalized feedback to refine your study plan. Ready to see how you stack up? Start now!

What is the basic functional unit of life?
Cell
Molecule
Atom
Organ
The cell is the smallest unit that can perform all life processes, making it the basic unit of life. All organisms are composed of one or more cells, according to cell theory. This principle is foundational in biology. Learn more
Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP in eukaryotic cells?
Mitochondrion
Chloroplast
Nucleus
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation in the inner membrane. They are often called the 'powerhouses' of the cell. Disruptions in mitochondrial function can lead to metabolic diseases. Learn more
What molecule carries genetic information in most organisms?
DNA
RNA
Protein
Lipid
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) stores hereditary information in cells. It consists of two strands forming a double helix. RNA plays roles in expression but DNA is the primary genetic material. Learn more
In which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?
Anaphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Telophase
During anaphase, spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart toward opposite poles. This ensures each daughter cell receives identical chromosomes. Errors in this step can cause aneuploidy. Learn more
What is the primary structural component of cell membranes?
Phospholipids
Polysaccharides
Nucleic acids
Peptidoglycan
Phospholipids form a bilayer that makes up the fluid matrix of cell membranes. Their hydrophilic heads face the aqueous environment while hydrophobic tails face inward. This arrangement is crucial for membrane function. Learn more
Which process describes water movement across a semipermeable membrane?
Osmosis
Diffusion
Endocytosis
Facilitated transport
Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane. It occurs from low solute to high solute concentration. Osmosis is critical in cell volume regulation. Learn more
What sugar is found in RNA but not in DNA?
Ribose
Deoxyribose
Glucose
Fructose
RNA contains ribose, which has a hydroxyl group at the 2' carbon. DNA contains deoxyribose, missing that hydroxyl group. This structural difference affects stability and function. Learn more
Which pigment captures light energy in plants?
Chlorophyll
Carotene
Xanthophyll
Anthocyanin
Chlorophyll absorbs light mainly in the blue and red regions during photosynthesis. It is found in thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts. Other pigments assist but chlorophyll is the primary. Learn more
What is the name of the phase where DNA replicates during the cell cycle?
S phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
M phase
During S phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs to prepare for mitosis. This ensures each daughter cell receives a full genome. The timing is tightly regulated by cyclins. Learn more
Which blood cells are primarily responsible for carrying oxygen?
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Plasma cells
Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues. They lack nuclei to maximize hemoglobin content. Their biconcave shape facilitates gas exchange. Learn more
What type of bond holds amino acids together in proteins?
Peptide bond
Hydrogen bond
Ionic bond
Glycosidic bond
Peptide bonds form between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another. This bond is created by a dehydration reaction. It forms the backbone of protein structure. Learn more
Which structure contains the genetic code in prokaryotes?
Nucleoid
Nucleus
Plasmid
Ribosome
Prokaryotes lack a membrane-bound nucleus; their DNA is located in the nucleoid region. It contains the chromosomal DNA in a supercoiled form. Plasmids are extra-chromosomal DNA molecules. Learn more
What is the main product of the light reactions in photosynthesis?
ATP and NADPH
Glucose
CO2
Pyruvate
Light reactions convert solar energy into chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH. These products power the Calvin cycle in the stroma. Oxygen is also released as a byproduct. Learn more
Which enzyme unwinds DNA during replication?
Helicase
Polymerase
Ligase
Topoisomerase
Helicase breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA strands to unwind the helix. This action creates the replication fork. Topoisomerase prevents supercoiling but does not unwind itself. Learn more
Which macromolecule type includes enzymes?
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Nucleic acids
Enzymes are proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions. Their three-dimensional structure is crucial for substrate binding. Disrupting protein structure alters enzymatic activity. Learn more
What is the term for a group of similar cells performing a common function?
Tissue
Organ
Organ system
Population
A tissue is an ensemble of similar cells working together to perform a specific function. Organs are composed of multiple tissue types. This level of organization is key in multicellular organisms. Learn more
Which law states that alleles segregate independently during gamete formation?
Mendel's second law
Law of dominance
Law of segregation
Law of linkage
Mendel's second law, the law of independent assortment, states that allele pairs separate independently during gamete formation. This leads to genetic variation in offspring. It applies to genes on different chromosomes. Learn more
What is the name of the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template?
Transcription
Translation
Replication
Transformation
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template by RNA polymerase. It produces messenger RNA which carries genetic code to ribosomes. This is the first step in gene expression. Learn more
Which structure in the eukaryotic cell is the site of protein synthesis?
Ribosome
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondrion
Ribosomes assemble amino acids into polypeptides based on mRNA instructions. They can be free in the cytosol or bound to the rough ER. This is central to protein synthesis. Learn more
What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
Protein glycosylation
ATP production
DNA replication
The smooth ER synthesizes lipids, metabolizes carbohydrates, and detoxifies drugs. It lacks ribosomes, giving it a smooth appearance. These functions vary by cell type. Learn more
Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
snRNA
Transfer RNA (tRNA) transports specific amino acids to the ribosome during translation. Each tRNA has an anticodon matching mRNA codons. This ensures correct amino acid sequence in proteins. Learn more
In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which factor must be absent for allele frequencies to remain constant?
Mutation
Genetic drift
All of the above
Natural selection
All evolutionary forcesnatural selection, genetic drift, mutation, migration, and nonrandom matingmust be absent for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. This theoretical model describes a stable genetic structure. Real populations often deviate due to these factors. Learn more
Which enzyme links Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication?
DNA ligase
DNA primase
DNA polymerase I
Helicase
DNA ligase seals nicks between Okazaki fragments to create a continuous strand. It forms phosphodiester bonds using ATP. This step completes lagging-strand synthesis. Learn more
What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
Protein modification and sorting
ATP production
DNA replication
Lipid breakdown
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for secretion or delivery to other organelles. It has distinct cis and trans faces. Glycosylation is a key modification step. Learn more
Which feature distinguishes prokaryotic transcription from eukaryotic transcription?
No RNA processing in prokaryotes
Three RNA polymerases in prokaryotes
Transcription in nucleus in prokaryotes
5' capping in prokaryotes
Prokaryotic mRNA is translated immediately without 5' capping, polyadenylation, or intron splicing. Eukaryotes process pre-mRNA in the nucleus before export. Prokaryotes have a single RNA polymerase. Learn more
Which mechanism increases genetic diversity during meiosis?
Crossing over
Mitosis
Binary fission
DNA replication
Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis exchanges genetic material between homologous chromosomes. This creates new allele combinations. It contributes significantly to genetic diversity in offspring. Learn more
Which cell cycle checkpoint ensures DNA is undamaged before replication?
G1/S checkpoint
G2/M checkpoint
Spindle checkpoint
Metaphase checkpoint
The G1/S checkpoint, also called the restriction point, checks for DNA damage and cell size before DNA replication. It prevents damaged DNA from being copied. p53 protein plays a key regulatory role. Learn more
What is epistasis in genetics?
Interaction where one gene masks another
Independent assortment of genes
Mutation in regulatory genes
Linkage between genes
Epistasis occurs when the expression of one gene is affected by one or more other genes. One gene may mask or modify the phenotype of another. This alters expected Mendelian ratios. Learn more
Which factor is required for translation initiation in prokaryotes?
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Kozak sequence
Poly-A tail
5' cap
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotic mRNA aligns the ribosome for translation initiation. It pairs with the 16S rRNA. Eukaryotes use a 5' cap and Kozak sequence instead. Learn more
Which molecule regulates gene expression by blocking transcription in prokaryotes?
Repressor protein
Activator protein
RNA polymerase
Ribosome
Repressor proteins bind to operator sequences and prevent RNA polymerase from transcribing genes. The lac repressor in E. coli is a classic example. This mechanism allows cells to conserve resources. Learn more
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP?
Oxidative phosphorylation
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
Fermentation
Oxidative phosphorylation in the inner mitochondrial membrane generates around 2834 ATP per glucose via the electron transport chain and ATP synthase. Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle yield far fewer ATP. This stage is most efficient. Learn more
What is the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction A + B ? C?
K = [C]/([A][B])
K = [A][B]/[C]
K = [A] + [B] - [C]
K = [C]([A][B])
The equilibrium constant for A + B ? C is the concentration of products over reactants: [C]/([A][B]). It reflects the ratio at equilibrium. A value >1 favors products. Learn more
Which technique separates DNA fragments by size using an electric field?
Gel electrophoresis
PCR
Southern blotting
CRISPR
Gel electrophoresis applies an electric field to move DNA fragments through a gel matrix. Smaller fragments migrate faster. This technique is fundamental in genetic analysis. Learn more
In signal transduction, what does a G-protein activate after GDP-GTP exchange?
Adenylate cyclase
Phospholipase C
Tyrosine kinase
Calmodulin
Activated G-proteins often stimulate adenylate cyclase to convert ATP to cAMP. cAMP acts as a second messenger in many pathways. Other effectors exist but adenylate cyclase is classic. Learn more
Which cellular structure facilitates movement in ciliated cells?
Microtubules arranged in a 9+2 pattern
Actin filaments
Intermediate filaments
Glycocalyx
Cilia have microtubules in a 9+2 arrangement encased by the plasma membrane. Dynein arms generate sliding forces for movement. This structure is key to motile cilia function. Learn more
What mechanism allows for X-chromosome inactivation in female mammals?
Epigenetic silencing by XIST RNA
DNA sequence deletion
Imprinting
Alternative splicing
XIST RNA coats one X chromosome in females, recruiting silencing complexes. This leads to heterochromatin formation and gene silencing. It equalizes gene dosage between sexes. Learn more
Which graphs plotting population genetics data show allele frequencies over generations?
Hardy-Weinberg graphs
Wright-Fisher models
Punnett squares
Phylogenetic trees
Wright-Fisher models simulate allele frequency changes under genetic drift across generations. They yield probability distributions of allele frequencies. Hardy-Weinberg is a static equilibrium model. Learn more
Which type of enzyme inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing substrate concentration?
Noncompetitive inhibition
Competitive inhibition
Uncompetitive inhibition
Allosteric activation
Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to an enzyme at a site other than the active site, altering its function. Increasing substrate concentration does not reverse inhibition. Vmax decreases while Km remains unchanged. Learn more
Which prism technique measures the 3D structure of proteins at atomic resolution?
X-ray crystallography
Mass spectrometry
Nuclear magnetic resonance
Cryo-electron microscopy
X-ray crystallography uses diffraction of X-rays through protein crystals to determine atomic structure. It has resolved many protein structures. Cryo-EM is emerging but X-ray remains high resolution. Learn more
What is the role of sigma factor in bacterial transcription?
It directs RNA polymerase to promoters
It unwinds DNA at the start site
It terminates transcription
It modifies mRNA
Sigma factors associate with RNA polymerase to recognize and bind specific promoter sequences in bacteria. This initiates transcription at the correct start site. Different sigma factors respond to environmental signals. Learn more
Which hormone regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Aldosterone
Renin
Atrial natriuretic peptide
ADH increases the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, promoting reabsorption and concentrating urine. It is released by the posterior pituitary. Its regulation is critical for fluid balance. Learn more
Which method quantifies gene expression by amplifying cDNA?
qPCR
Western blotting
Northern blotting
ELISA
Quantitative PCR (qPCR) amplifies cDNA to quantify mRNA levels in samples. Fluorescent dyes measure product accumulation in real time. It is sensitive and widely used in gene expression studies. Learn more
Which process joins two DNA fragments using complementary overhangs?
Restriction enzyme cloning
Gibson assembly
Ligase chain reaction
Site-directed mutagenesis
Gibson assembly uses exonuclease, polymerase, and ligase to join DNA fragments with overlapping ends in one isothermal reaction. It allows precise and scarless cloning. It is faster than traditional restriction-based methods. Learn more
Which enzyme complex degrades misfolded proteins in eukaryotic cells?
Proteasome
Ribosome
Lysosome
Chaperonin
The proteasome recognizes ubiquitin-tagged proteins and degrades them into peptides. This regulates protein quality and turnover. Lysosomes degrade extracellular or organelle-derived proteins via autophagy. Learn more
Which CRISPR component is responsible for guiding Cas9 to the target DNA sequence?
crRNA-tracrRNA complex (sgRNA)
Cas9 protein
PAM sequence
dCas9
Single-guide RNA (sgRNA) is a fusion of crRNA and tracrRNA, directing Cas9 to complementary DNA. It ensures specificity of the Cas9 nuclease. The protospacer adjacent motif (PAM) also aids target recognition. Learn more
Which histone modification is typically associated with active transcription?
H3K4 methylation
H3K27 methylation
H3K9 methylation
H4K20 methylation
Methylation of histone H3 at lysine 4 (H3K4me) correlates with open chromatin and active gene transcription. In contrast, H3K9 and H3K27 methylation are repressive marks. Epigenetic patterns regulate gene expression. Learn more
In the lac operon, what effect does high lactose and low glucose have on transcription?
Maximal transcription via CAP activation and repressor removal
No transcription due to repressor binding
Minimal transcription due to lack of CAP binding
Transcription only of regulatory genes
High lactose inactivates the lac repressor, and low glucose increases cAMP, which binds CAP, enhancing RNA polymerase binding. Together, these conditions produce maximal lac operon transcription. This is classic catabolite repression. Learn more
Which molecular technique allows single-cell RNA sequencing?
scRNA-seq
Microarray
Bulk RNA-seq
qPCR
Single-cell RNA sequencing (scRNA-seq) profiles transcriptomes of individual cells, revealing cellular heterogeneity. It uses microfluidics or droplet methods to isolate single cells. This technology has advanced developmental and cancer biology. Learn more
What is the term for non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally in eukaryotes?
MicroRNAs
rRNAs
tRNAs
snRNAs
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are ~22 nucleotide non-coding RNAs that bind mRNA to inhibit translation or cause degradation. They are key regulators of gene expression in development and disease. They work through the RISC complex. Learn more
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Cellular Structures -

    Clarify the functions of organelles and membrane components through targeted biology 2 final exam test questions on cell structure and function.

  2. Analyze Genetic Patterns -

    Examine Mendelian inheritance and probability-based problems to interpret how traits pass from one generation to the next in this general biology quiz.

  3. Apply Evolutionary Principles -

    Use scenario-based questions to connect natural selection, adaptation, and speciation processes in real-world contexts.

  4. Identify Biochemical Processes -

    Recognize key metabolic pathways and molecular interactions by answering questions on enzyme function and energy transfer in cells.

  5. Differentiate Cell Types -

    Compare prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms to highlight structural and functional distinctions essential for college biology practice test success.

  6. Evaluate Exam Preparedness -

    Assess your strengths and pinpoint areas for review by tracking your performance on this biology I exam practice quiz.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Cell Structure & Organelle Functions -

    Review the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane and key organelles like mitochondria (ATP production) and endoplasmic reticulum (protein/lipid synthesis). Remember "Little Power Plants in Cells" to recall mitochondria's role and "Rough and Smooth ER" for protein versus lipid pathways. These core concepts are staples on any biology 2 final exam test or college biology practice test.

  2. Membrane Transport Mechanisms -

    Distinguish passive transport (diffusion, osmosis) from active transport (Na❺/K❺ pump) and use the osmotic pressure formula π = iMRT for problem-solving. A quick mnemonic - "D.O.N't Forget A Pump" - helps you remember Diffusion, Osmosis, and Na❺/K❺ ATPase. Mastering these pathways is crucial for biology test prep and general biology quiz questions.

  3. DNA Replication & Gene Expression -

    Understand semiconservative replication (Meselson - Stahl), key enzymes (DNA pol I/III, helicase, primase), and the flow of information in the central dogma (DNA→RNA→protein). Think "HPD" (Helicase, Primase, DNA pol) to recall the replication steps. This foundational molecular genetics knowledge appears frequently on biology I exam practice.

  4. Mendelian Genetics & Punnett Squares -

    Apply Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment in monohybrid and dihybrid crosses using Punnett squares; practice calculating genotype and phenotype ratios. Use the mnemonic "S.I.P." (Segregation, Independent, Punnett) to retain key principles. These genetics problems are common in biology 2 final exam tests and are vital for exam success.

  5. Hardy - Weinberg Equilibrium & Evolution -

    Learn the equations p + q = 1 and p² + 2pq + q² = 1 to analyze allele frequencies under no-evolution conditions. Remember "No Gene Shifts" (No mutation, selection, gene flow, drift) to list equilibrium assumptions. Understanding this model is essential for tackling evolution questions on your biology test prep.

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