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Quizzes > Science > Biology

Bio 202 Final Exam Quizlet: Are You Ready to Ace It?

Dive into our Bio 202 practice quiz and master your exam prep!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
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Ready to ace your biology finals? Dive into our bio 202 final exam quizlet to challenge yourself with realistic practice and boost your confidence. Whether you're reviewing key concepts in cell biology, genetics, or ecology, this free bio 202 practice quiz has you covered with biology 202 final review questions and an interactive bio 202 sample quiz designed by experienced instructors. For a comprehensive study session, check out our detailed semester 2 review or revisit tricky topics with a handy midterm review session . Start your bio 202 exam prep journey now and transform last-minute stress into exam-day success!

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production in eukaryotic cells?
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Chloroplast
Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell, producing ATP via oxidative phosphorylation in the inner membrane. They contain enzymes of the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain which drive ATP synthesis. Other organelles perform different functions, such as protein processing in the ER or photosynthesis in chloroplasts (in plants). This central role in energy metabolism is why mitochondria are key to cellular function. More on mitochondrial function
What are the monomers that make up proteins?
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Monosaccharides
Fatty acids
Proteins are polymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. Each amino acid contains an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a distinctive side chain. During protein synthesis, amino acids are joined in a ribosome to form polypeptide chains based on mRNA templates. This fundamental structure underlies all protein functions. Protein structure basics
In DNA, which base pairs with adenine?
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
Uracil
Adenine (A) forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine (T) in DNA, stabilizing the double helix. Guanine pairs with cytosine and uracil is only found in RNA. This specific pairing ensures accurate DNA replication and transcription. The AT pairing is a key feature of Chargaffs rules. DNA base pairing
What is the process called that converts an mRNA sequence into a polypeptide chain?
Translation
Transcription
Replication
Reverse transcription
Translation is the process by which ribosomes read mRNA codons and assemble the corresponding amino acids into a polypeptide chain. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template. Replication duplicates the entire DNA molecule, and reverse transcription synthesizes DNA from an RNA template. Translation is essential for gene expression. Overview of translation
Enzymes belong to which class of macromolecules?
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Nucleic acids
Most enzymes are proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions by lowering activation energy. While some RNA molecules (ribozymes) have catalytic activity, the vast majority of biological catalysts are protein enzymes. Carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids serve other structural and informational roles. Enzymes are critical for metabolism and regulation. Enzyme structure and function
The pH of a solution is a measure of the concentration of which ions?
Hydrogen ions (H+)
Hydroxide ions (OH-)
Sodium ions (Na+)
Chloride ions (Cl-)
pH is defined as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration: pH = log[H+]. A higher [H+] corresponds to a lower pH (more acidic). While hydroxide concentration is related, pH specifically measures H+ levels. This concept is fundamental to biochemical reactions and enzyme activity. Understanding pH
Which of the following nitrogenous bases is a pyrimidine?
Cytosine
Adenine
Guanine
Uracil
Pyrimidines have a single six-membered ring structure; cytosine, thymine, and uracil belong to this category. Adenine and guanine are purines, which have fused two-ring structures. In DNA, cytosine pairs with guanine. Recognizing pyrimidines versus purines is important for understanding nucleic acid structure. Nucleotide classification
In a monohybrid cross of two heterozygous pea plants (Aa x Aa), what phenotypic ratio is expected in the F2 generation?
3:1
9:3:3:1
1:1
1:2:1
A monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa) yields genotypes AA, Aa, and aa in a 1:2:1 ratio. However, dominant and recessive trait expression leads to a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (dominant:recessive). The 9:3:3:1 ratio applies to dihybrid crosses. Mendels classic experiments demonstrated this pattern. Mendelian genetics
The fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of which cellular component?
Plasma membrane
Nuclear envelope
Ribosome
Cytoskeleton
The fluid-mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as a dynamic bilayer of phospholipids with embedded proteins that move laterally. This fluidity allows for membrane flexibility and protein function. Other structures, like the nucleus or ribosomes, have different organizational models. The model was first proposed by Singer and Nicolson in 1972. Fluid-mosaic membrane model
In which cellular compartment does glycolysis occur?
Cytoplasm
Mitochondrial matrix
Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate, occurs in the cytoplasm of all cells. It does not require oxygen and yields ATP and NADH. Subsequent steps of cellular respiration occur in mitochondria. This pathway is the first stage of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Glycolysis overview
In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what does the Km value represent?
Substrate concentration at half Vmax
Maximum reaction velocity
Enzyme concentration
Rate constant for product formation
Km is defined as the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax. It reflects the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate: a lower Km indicates higher affinity. Vmax is the maximum velocity achieved at saturating substrate. This concept is central to enzyme kinetics. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
Facilitated diffusion across a membrane requires which of the following?
Carrier proteins
ATP hydrolysis
Endocytosis
Lipid-soluble substances only
Facilitated diffusion uses specific carrier or channel proteins to move molecules down their concentration gradients without energy input. ATP hydrolysis is required for active transport, not facilitated diffusion. Endocytosis is a bulk transport process. Lipid-soluble molecules can diffuse directly without carriers. Membrane transport
During PCR, which temperature step allows Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands?
72C (extension)
95C (denaturation)
55C (annealing)
37C (incubation)
In PCR, extension occurs at around 72C, the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to add nucleotides to the primer-bound template. Denaturation at 95C separates DNA strands, and annealing at ~55C allows primers to bind. There is no standard 37C step. This thermal cycling drives DNA amplification. PCR steps
In the lac operon of E. coli, what happens when lactose is absent?
The repressor binds the operator and blocks transcription
RNA polymerase binds the operator and initiates transcription
cAMP binds the promoter and stimulates transcription
The inducer binds the repressor, preventing its binding
When lactose is absent, the lac repressor binds to the operator region, preventing RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon genes. In the presence of lactose (allolactose), the repressor is inactivated. cAMP-CRP binding enhances transcription only when glucose is low. This regulation ensures efficient resource use. Lac operon regulation
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?
Anaphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Telophase
Anaphase is characterized by the separation of sister chromatids, which are pulled toward opposite poles of the cell by spindle fibers. In metaphase, chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Prophase involves chromosomal condensation, and telophase saw reformation of nuclear envelopes. Accurate chromatid separation is vital for genetic fidelity. Mitosis phases
A non-competitive inhibitor affects enzyme kinetics by:
Lowering Vmax without changing Km
Increasing Km without changing Vmax
Binding at the active site
Acting as a substrate analog
Non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site, reducing the enzymes maximum velocity (Vmax) without altering substrate binding affinity (Km). They do not compete with substrate at the active site. Competitive inhibitors, by contrast, increase Km but do not change Vmax. This distinction is critical for drug design and enzyme regulation. Inhibition types
What type of bond links amino acids together in a polypeptide chain?
Peptide bond
Glycosidic bond
Phosphodiester bond
Ester bond
A peptide bond forms between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another, creating a covalent linkage that builds polypeptide chains. Glycosidic bonds connect sugars, phosphodiester bonds link nucleotides, and ester bonds link fatty acids to glycerol. Peptide bonds are central to protein primary structure. Peptide bond formation
The primary structure of a protein is determined by:
The amino acid sequence encoded by the gene
mRNA secondary structure
Ribosomal RNA sequence
Chaperone activity
The primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in a protein, which is directly encoded by the corresponding genes DNA sequence. mRNA secondary structures and chaperones influence folding (secondary to quaternary structures), but not the fundamental sequence. This sequence dictates all higher-level structures and protein function. Protein structure levels
An electrochemical gradient driving the co-transport of two molecules is an example of:
Secondary active transport
Primary active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Endocytosis
Secondary active transport uses the energy stored in an electrochemical gradient created by primary active transport to move another molecule against its gradient. In contrast, primary active transport directly uses ATP hydrolysis. Facilitated diffusion is passive and does not involve gradients driving uphill transport, and endocytosis is bulk uptake. Membrane transport
The anticodon sequence on tRNA that pairs with the mRNA codon UUU is:
AAA
UUU
TTT
UUA
The anticodon is complementary and antiparallel to the mRNA codon. For mRNA codon 5'-UUU-3', the tRNA anticodon reads 3'-AAA-5', often written 5'-AAA-3'. This AAA anticodon carries phenylalanine to the ribosome. Accurate codonanticodon pairing ensures correct amino acid incorporation. Translation and anticodons
Activation of G-protein-coupled receptors often leads to an increase in which second messenger?
cAMP
ATP
IP6
NADH
Many G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) activate adenylate cyclase via G?s proteins, converting ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). cAMP then activates protein kinase A to propagate the signal. Other receptors may utilize different messengers like IP3, but cAMP is the classic GPCR second messenger. This pathway regulates numerous physiological processes. GPCR signaling
During which stage of cellular respiration is FADH2 produced?
Citric acid cycle
Glycolysis
Electron transport chain
Fermentation
FADH2 is generated in the citric acid cycle specifically when succinate is oxidized to fumarate by succinate dehydrogenase. Glycolysis produces NADH, and the ETC uses both NADH and FADH2. Fermentation regenerates NAD+ without producing FADH2. The citric acid cycle is central to aerobic metabolism. Citric acid cycle details
Which equation represents the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for two alleles?
p + 2pq + q = 1
p + q = 1
p + q = 1
2p + 2q = 1
The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies p and q in a population remain constant, and genotype frequencies are given by p (homozygous dominant), 2pq (heterozygous), and q (homozygous recessive), summing to 1. The simpler p + q = 1 applies to allele frequencies but not genotype frequencies. This equilibrium assumes no evolution. Population genetics
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA migrates toward the:
Positive electrode (anode)
Negative electrode (cathode)
Neutral buffer well
Gel origin
DNA molecules carry a negative charge due to their phosphate backbone, causing them to migrate toward the positively charged anode during electrophoresis. Smaller fragments move faster through the gel matrix. The cathode is negatively charged, so DNA moves away from it. This principle enables size-based separation of nucleic acids. Gel electrophoresis
Which meiotic process increases genetic diversity by random distribution of homologous chromosomes?
Independent assortment
DNA replication
Cytokinesis
Gene transcription
Independent assortment during metaphase I of meiosis randomly distributes maternal and paternal homologs into gametes. This process generates a variety of allele combinations, increasing genetic diversity. DNA replication and cytokinesis are other steps of cell division but do not directly shuffle alleles. Gene transcription is unrelated. Meiosis overview
Taq polymerase, used in PCR, is isolated from which organism?
Thermus aquaticus
Escherichia coli
Bacillus subtilis
Staphylococcus aureus
Taq polymerase was first isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, allowing PCR to be performed at high temperatures without denaturing the enzyme. E. coli polymerases are not heat-stable. The thermostability of Taq is critical for repeated denaturation steps in PCR. PCR enzymes
Microtubules are polymers composed of which subunits?
?- and ?-tubulin dimers
Actin monomers
Intermediate filament proteins
Kinesin and dynein
Microtubules are hollow cylinders made of ?- and ?-tubulin heterodimers that polymerize head-to-tail into protofilaments. Actin monomers form microfilaments, and intermediate filaments consist of different proteins like keratin. Kinesin and dynein are motor proteins that move along microtubules. Tubulin dynamics are essential for cell structure and mitosis. Cytoskeleton structure
DNA methylation typically leads to:
Transcriptional repression
Increased mutation rate
mRNA splicing
Protein acetylation
Methylation of cytosine bases in DNA, especially in CpG islands, is associated with chromatin condensation and transcriptional silencing. It does not directly increase mutation rates, which are more influenced by other factors. mRNA splicing and protein acetylation are separate processes. DNA methylation is a key epigenetic modification. DNA methylation
Which amino acid has an acidic side chain at physiological pH?
Aspartic acid
Lysine
Serine
Phenylalanine
Aspartic acid and glutamic acid are the two amino acids with negatively charged (acidic) side chains at physiological pH. Lysine is basic, serine is polar uncharged, and phenylalanine is nonpolar. The side chain charge influences protein structure and function. Amino acid properties
An ion channel that opens in response to neurotransmitter binding is called a:
Ligand-gated channel
Voltage-gated channel
Mechanically-gated channel
Leak channel
Ligand-gated ion channels open upon binding of a specific chemical messenger (ligand), such as a neurotransmitter. Voltage-gated channels respond to changes in membrane potential, mechanically-gated channels respond to physical forces, and leak channels are always open. Ligand gating is essential for synaptic transmission. Ion channel types
Ras proteins function as:
GTPases that hydrolyze GTP to GDP
Protein kinases that phosphorylate serine residues
Phosphatases that remove phosphate groups
Transcription factors binding DNA
Ras proteins are small GTPases that act as molecular switches, cycling between an active GTP-bound state and an inactive GDP-bound state. Their intrinsic GTPase activity hydrolyzes GTP to GDP, turning off the signal. Mutations that impair this activity can lead to uncontrolled cell growth. Ras signaling is a key oncogenic pathway. Ras GTPase
Which checkpoint ensures DNA integrity before entry into S phase?
G1/S checkpoint
G2/M checkpoint
Spindle assembly checkpoint
Metaphase/anaphase checkpoint
The G1/S checkpoint evaluates DNA for damage before the cell commits to DNA replication. p53 and p21 are key regulators here. The G2/M checkpoint assesses DNA replication completion and damage before mitosis. Spindle and metaphase/anaphase checkpoints monitor chromosome attachment. These controls maintain genomic stability. Cell cycle checkpoints
Histone acetylation generally leads to:
Increased transcription by loosening chromatin
DNA methylation
Histone ubiquitination
RNA splicing
Acetylation of lysine residues on histone tails neutralizes positive charges, reducing histone-DNA interactions and opening chromatin structure. This open conformation facilitates transcription factor access and gene expression. DNA methylation and ubiquitination are different epigenetic marks. Acetylation is a key regulator of gene activity. Histone modifications
Which general transcription factor binds the TATA box during assembly of the RNA polymerase II preinitiation complex?
TFIID
TFIIA
TFIIB
TFIIH
TFIID is the first general transcription factor to bind the TATA box, through its TATA-binding protein (TBP) subunit, and nucleates the assembly of other factors and RNA polymerase II. TFIIA and TFIIB stabilize the complex, while TFIIH has helicase and kinase activities for initiation. Proper assembly is essential for accurate transcription. Transcription initiation
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Cell Structure and Function -

    Master the roles and interactions of organelles and cellular components to confidently tackle cell biology questions.

  2. Analyze Genetic Inheritance Patterns -

    Interpret Mendelian and molecular genetics scenarios to solve inheritance problems and predict trait outcomes accurately.

  3. Apply Metabolic Pathway Knowledge -

    Describe key steps and regulation points in pathways like glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and photosynthesis to answer biochemistry questions.

  4. Interpret Exam-Style Questions -

    Develop strategies for dissecting Bio 202 final exam quizlet prompts, eliminating distractors and selecting the best answer.

  5. Identify and Address Knowledge Gaps -

    Use your performance on practice quiz questions to pinpoint weak areas and target your review effectively before the test.

  6. Enhance Test-Taking Confidence -

    Familiarize yourself with the bio 202 sample quiz format to improve time management, reduce anxiety, and boost overall exam readiness.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Fluid Mosaic Model & Membrane Transport -

    Cell membranes follow the fluid mosaic model, where phospholipids and proteins drift laterally to maintain flexibility (Alberts et al., 2015). Review transport types: simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion through carriers or channels, and active transport - like the Na❺/K❺-ATPase that pumps 3 Na❺ out and 2 K❺ in per ATP. Understanding this dynamic barrier is crucial for bio 202 final exam quizlet questions on cellular homeostasis.

  2. Enzyme Kinetics & Regulation -

    Master the Michaelis - Menten equation, v = (Vmax [S])/(Km + [S]), to predict reaction rates (Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry, 2017). Remember that a low Km indicates high substrate affinity, and use Lineweaver - Burk plots to linearize data for precise Vmax and Km determination. Don't forget allosteric regulators like ATP or feedback inhibition, which shift kinetic curves and fine-tune pathways.

  3. Mendelian Genetics & Probability -

    Review monohybrid and dihybrid crosses with Punnett squares, and apply the chi-square test, χ² = Σ((O - E)²/E), to assess inheritance patterns against expected ratios. A handy mnemonic for chi-square steps is "Ours Minus Expected, Squared, Over Expected." Genetics often pops up in bio 202 practice quiz and bio 202 final exam quizlet, so practice predicting phenotypic ratios and calculating p-values.

  4. DNA Replication & Repair Mechanisms -

    Remember that DNA polymerases synthesize new strands 5′→3′ and proofread with 3′→5′ exonuclease activity to minimize errors (NCBI Molecular Biology). Key repair pathways include mismatch repair (MutS/L), base excision repair, and nucleotide excision repair for UV-induced damage. Linking each mechanism with its enzymes and steps will boost your confidence on exam-style questions.

  5. Central Metabolic Pathways: Glycolysis & TCA Cycle -

    Use the mnemonic "Goodness Gracious, Father Franklin Did Go By Picking Pumpkins (To Prepare Pies)" for the 10 glycolytic enzymes, and recall net yields: 2 ATP and 2 NADH per glucose. Then follow acetyl-CoA through the TCA cycle to generate 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, and 1 GTP per turn (Campbell Biology, 2020). Mapping these pathways end-to-end helps you tackle any bio 202 final exam quizlet question on energy production.

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