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Quizzes > Quizzes for Business > Healthcare

EMS Protocol Knowledge Assessment Quiz

Test Your Emergency Medical Procedures Expertise

Difficulty: Moderate
Questions: 20
Learning OutcomesStudy Material
Colorful paper art depicting a quiz on EMS Protocol Knowledge Assessment

Passionate EMS professionals and students will love testing their skills with this EMS protocol quiz that covers essential guidelines and procedures. You'll face 15 multiple-choice questions designed to reflect real-life emergency scenarios and boost your decision-making confidence. This assessment is perfect for paramedics, EMTs, or anyone seeking to evaluate their emergency medical protocol knowledge. Feel free to adjust the questions in our editor to match your training needs. After finishing, explore more quizzes like the EMT/EMS Fundamentals Knowledge Quiz or sharpen your skills with the Patient Identification Protocol Quiz.

What is the correct sequence of the primary assessment in EMS?
Disability, Exposure, Airway
Breathing, Circulation, Airway
Airway, Breathing, Circulation
Circulation, Airway, Breathing
The primary assessment follows the ABC sequence to identify and manage life-threatening conditions. Airway must be secured first, followed by breathing and circulation.
At what rate per minute should chest compressions be delivered during adult CPR?
80 - 100 compressions per minute
60 - 80 compressions per minute
100 - 120 compressions per minute
120 - 140 compressions per minute
Current guidelines recommend 100 - 120 compressions per minute for effective circulation. Rates below or above this range may reduce perfusion or cause rescuer fatigue.
In the FAST stroke assessment, what does the letter 'F' represent?
Fine motor
Foot drop
Focal pain
Facial droop
The 'F' in FAST stands for facial droop, which assesses symmetry of facial muscle movement. Drooping on one side suggests a possible stroke.
When should an automated external defibrillator (AED) be applied to an unresponsive patient?
As soon as possible upon arrival
Only if manual compressions fail
After securing the airway
After establishing IV access
Early defibrillation improves survival in cardiac arrest. An AED should be applied immediately to determine rhythm and deliver shocks if indicated.
Which condition indicates the need for cervical spine immobilization in a trauma patient?
Superficial laceration to the forehead
Complaint of abdominal pain without trauma
Presence of an isolated ankle fracture
Any suspicion of head or neck injury
Suspected head or neck trauma can lead to spinal injury, so immobilization is required until cleared. Other isolated injuries without mechanism do not automatically require c-spine precautions.
After a witnessed seizure, which intervention should the EMS provider perform first?
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Check blood glucose level
Ensure airway patency and adequate breathing
Start IV fluids
Post-ictal patients are at risk for airway obstruction and hypoventilation. Securing the airway and assessing breathing is priority before other interventions.
Which medication is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis in the field?
Epinephrine intramuscularly
Diphenhydramine IV
Hydrocortisone IV
Albuterol nebulization
IM epinephrine rapidly reverses airway edema and hypotension in anaphylaxis. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts but not first-line.
In a mass casualty incident, which triage tag indicates immediate life-saving intervention is required?
Green tag
Red tag
Black tag
Yellow tag
Red-tagged patients require immediate interventions to survive. Yellow and green are delayed or minor, while black indicates expectant.
Which maneuver best maintains cervical spine stabilization during airway assessment?
Head tilt-chin lift
Neck extension with chin lift
Manual in-line stabilization
Jaw thrust without stabilization
Manual in-line stabilization neutralizes the cervical spine while allowing airway assessment. Head tilt or chin lift can exacerbate spinal injury if not secured.
What is the target SpO₂ range for most non-critical adult patients on supplemental oxygen?
99 - 100%
94 - 98%
85 - 90%
90 - 92%
Maintaining SpO₂ between 94 - 98% avoids hypoxia without risking oxygen toxicity. Higher targets are unnecessary for most patients.
Which of the following signs is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure?
Hyperthermia with chills
Tachycardia with hypotension
Rapid irregular respirations
Widening pulse pressure with bradycardia
Cushing's triad includes hypertension with widening pulse pressure and bradycardia, indicating elevated intracranial pressure. Respiratory changes follow later.
What gauge IV catheter is recommended for rapid fluid resuscitation in adult trauma patients?
18-gauge
22-gauge
24-gauge
20-gauge
An 18-gauge IV catheter allows adequate flow rates for trauma resuscitation. Smaller gauges do not support rapid infusion.
Which head position is ideal for opening the airway of a responsive pediatric patient without suspected spine injury?
Head tilt only
Sniffing position
Full extension
Neutral position only
The sniffing position aligns the oral, pharyngeal and laryngeal axes, optimizing airway patency. Full extension can occlude the airway in young children.
Using the rule of nines in adults, what percentage of total body surface area does one entire leg represent?
1%
36%
18%
9%
In adults, each entire leg is estimated as 18% of total body surface area. This aids rapid burn size calculation.
When is the secondary survey performed during patient assessment?
During patient transport without primary survey
Only after hospital admission
After primary survey and stabilization
Before the primary survey
The secondary survey is a head-to-toe assessment conducted after life-threatening conditions have been managed in the primary survey. It ensures no injuries are missed.
What is the proper initial decontamination sequence for a patient exposed to a liquid chemical?
Remove clothing then irrigate with copious water
Apply neutralizing agent before water rinse
Wash with soap then remove clothing
Dry decon with absorbent material only
Removing contaminated clothing prevents further skin contact, and immediate irrigation with water dilutes the chemical. Neutralizers are not used prehospital.
A patient demonstrates severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation, and hypotension after chest trauma. What is the prehospital intervention?
Immediate chest tube placement
Endotracheal intubation
High-flow oxygen only
Needle thoracostomy
Needle thoracostomy relieves tension pneumothorax by allowing trapped air to escape. Chest tubes are placed in-hospital.
Which induction agent is most commonly used for rapid sequence intubation in the field?
Fentanyl
Lorazepam
Midazolam
Etomidate
Etomidate provides hemodynamic stability and rapid onset, making it ideal for prehospital RSI. Benzodiazepines and opioids are not primary induction agents.
In SALT triage, what does the 'A' stand for?
Advance
Alert
Airway
Assess
SALT stands for Sort, Assess, Life-saving interventions, and Treatment/Transport. 'Assess' guides patient evaluation after initial sorting.
When evaluating a deviation from established EMS protocols, what should guide the provider's decision-making?
Equipment availability alone
Time of day
Patient safety and clinical need
Crew convenience
Protocols may be adapted if the patient's condition requires it, but patient safety and clinical indications must guide deviations. Convenience or time alone are not valid justifications.
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Learning Outcomes

  1. Identify critical steps in EMS treatment protocols
  2. Apply appropriate emergency response guidelines
  3. Analyse patient scenarios to select correct protocols
  4. Demonstrate compliance with established medical standards
  5. Evaluate protocol deviations and safety considerations
  6. Master triage procedures under time-sensitive conditions

Cheat Sheet

  1. Emergency Severity Index (ESI) - Think of ESI as your fast-pass system in the ER, helping caregivers decide who needs immediate attention and who can wait. There are five levels based on how sick the patient is and how many resources they'll need. Mastering each level ensures you can sort patients quickly like a pro. Emergency Severity Index
  2. Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) - When disaster strikes, chaos follows - so you need a quick classification trick. START breaks down victims into Immediate, Delayed, Minor, or Deceased in seconds. Learning this method helps you keep cool and get the right people the right care fast. Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment
  3. ABCs of Emergency Care - Airway, Breathing, and Circulation are your ABCs for keeping someone alive. You'll check the airway first, make sure they're breathing comfortably, then keep the blood pumping. Nailing these basics makes you the hero in any emergency scenario. ABC of Resuscitation
  4. Recognizing Shock - Shock is like your body hitting a system-wide low battery warning. Watch for a rapid pulse, low blood pressure, cool pale skin, or confusion. Recognizing these red flags early can be the difference between full recovery and a turn for the worse. Circulatory Shock
  5. CPR Protocols - Chances are someone will need a hand, and that's where CPR comes in. Remember the magic number: 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths, right on the lower half of the sternum. Practicing these moves with the right rhythm means you'll be ready when seconds count. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
  6. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) - The Glasgow Coma Scale is your go-to quiz for how alert someone really is, scoring eyes, verbal, and motor responses. A quick GCS check reveals the depth of a brain injury and guides your next steps. Knowing the score helps you talk the same language as the trauma team. Glasgow Coma Scale
  7. Automated External Defibrillators (AEDs) - AEDs are stranger-to-stranger lifesavers - you just turn them on and follow the prompts. But know the do's and don'ts: don't use it in water or on someone with a pacemaker patch. Getting comfortable with AED use means you could restart a heart at a moment's notice. Automated External Defibrillator
  8. Scene Safety & PPE - Before charging in like a superhero, check your surroundings: slippery floors, broken glass, or fumes can turn rescuer into a casualty. Suit up with gloves, goggles, and masks to protect yourself and your patient. Staying safe means you can care longer and stronger. Personal Protective Equipment
  9. Managing Common Emergencies - Heart attacks, strokes, and diabetic crises each have their own tell-tale signs: chest pain, face droop, or dangerously high sugar levels. Learn the fast-track protocols for each and stay calm under pressure. Rapid, appropriate action can mean headline-worthy survival stories. Medical Emergency
  10. Effective Communication - Great tech skills are nothing without clear communication - with patients, families, and fellow caregivers. Use simple language, active listening, and compassion to build trust and reduce panic. Strong teamwork through words can turn a tense scene into a well-oiled response team. Health Communication
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