Unlock hundreds more features
Save your Quiz to the Dashboard
View and Export Results
Use AI to Create Quizzes and Analyse Results

OR
Sign inSign in with Facebook
Sign inSign in with Google
Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Ready for NCLEX PN? Practice Questions Quiz in Exam Mode

Think you can ace sle nclex questions? Jump into our PN practice test now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration of a NCLEX PN exam style quiz with question cards, check marks, and score tracker on teal background.

Embark on your NCLEX PN exam prep journey with our NCLEX PN practice questions quiz! Designed for future practical nurses, this free exam mode challenge immerses you in realistic sle nclex questions so you can sharpen critical thinking and track your progress instantly. Whether you're tackling your first PN practice test or reinforcing tough clinical scenarios, our interactive format mirrors the NCLEX PN exam mode to build confidence and competence. Browse our curated question bank NCLEX PN practice questions or explore additional drills in a comprehensive NCLEX practice exam . Ready to ace your PN practice test? Dive in now, measure your strengths, and power up your path to licensure - let's get started!

Which vital sign value indicates a normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult?
8 breaths per minute
12 breaths per minute
20 breaths per minute
28 breaths per minute
A normal adult respiratory rate is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute, with 12 considered on the lower end of normal. Rates below or above this range may indicate respiratory compromise or distress. Regular assessment of respiratory rate helps detect early changes in patient status. Normal Respiratory Rate
What is the earliest sign of inflammation at a surgical site?
Pallor
Swelling
Warmth
Drainage
Among the cardinal signs of inflammation—redness, heat, swelling, and pain—heat (warmth) is often the earliest detectable sign due to increased blood flow. Recognizing warmth early can prompt timely intervention to prevent infection. Inflammatory Response
Which method is the most reliable for confirming nasogastric tube placement before feeding?
Measuring tube length at the nares
pH testing of aspirated fluid
Auscultation of the epigastrium
Chest radiograph
A chest radiograph is the gold standard for confirming nasogastric tube placement, ensuring the tube tip is in the stomach and not the respiratory tract. Other methods are less accurate and should not replace radiographic confirmation. NG Tube Verification
A patient’s IV drip is ordered at 1,000 mL over 8 hours. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute should you set the IV pump?
40 gtt/min
25 gtt/min
50 gtt/min
20 gtt/min
Calculate drops per minute using: (Volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtt/mL)) ÷ Time (min). Here: (1000 × 20) ÷ 480 = 41.6, rounded to 40 gtt/min. Accurate drip rates prevent fluid overload or deficit. IV Drip Calculations
Which subcutaneous injection site has the fastest absorption rate?
Upper outer arm
Abdomen
Anterior thigh
Upper back
The abdomen has the richest blood supply among common subcutaneous sites, leading to the fastest drug absorption. Rotating sites within the abdominal area helps maintain consistent absorption rates. Subcutaneous Injection Sites
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which need should be addressed first?
Self-esteem
Safety and security
Physiological needs
Self-actualization
Physiological needs (e.g., food, water, oxygen) are the foundation of Maslow’s hierarchy and must be met before higher-level needs like safety or esteem. Ensuring basic survival needs supports all other levels. Maslow's Hierarchy
How long should a nurse perform hand hygiene with soap and water to effectively remove germs?
5 seconds
10 seconds
20 seconds
30 seconds
The CDC recommends at least 20 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to mechanically remove pathogens. Proper technique includes lathering all surfaces of the hands and rinsing thoroughly. Hand Hygiene Guidelines
Which of the following is a normal range for adult capillary blood glucose?
40–60 mg/dL
70–110 mg/dL
120–160 mg/dL
160–200 mg/dL
Normal fasting capillary blood glucose levels range from 70 to 110 mg/dL. Values below or above this range may signal hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia requiring intervention. Blood Glucose Monitoring
A client on heparin therapy has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The normal range is 30–40 seconds. What should the PN do first?
Stop the heparin infusion
Administer vitamin K
Draw another aPTT in 4 hours
Increase the heparin rate
An aPTT of 90 seconds indicates a risk of bleeding since it is more than twice the control. Stopping or holding the infusion until aPTT returns to therapeutic range is appropriate. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin. Heparin Monitoring
Which finding indicates infiltration of an IV site?
Coolness around the site
Edema and warmth
Bright red blood return
Visible pulsation
Coolness, swelling, and discomfort at the insertion site are classic signs of IV infiltration, where fluid leaks into surrounding tissue. Warmth and redness suggest phlebitis, while blood return indicates patency. IV Complications
A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen. Which flow rate is most appropriate to avoid suppressing respiratory drive?
1–2 L/min via nasal cannula
4–6 L/min via simple mask
8–10 L/min via non-rebreather
10–12 L/min via venturi mask
Patients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive; low-flow oxygen (1–2 L/min) via nasal cannula maintains adequate saturation without eliminating their respiratory stimulus. Higher flows can lead to CO? retention. Oxygen Therapy in COPD
When administering packed red blood cells, which vital signs indicate a possible transfusion reaction?
Temperature increase of 1.5°F and chills
Blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg with no other symptoms
Pulse decrease of 5 beats per minute
Respirations remain stable at 16/min
A fever (rise ?1°C or 1.5°F) with chills during a blood transfusion suggests an acute hemolytic or febrile nonhemolytic reaction. Stopping the transfusion and notifying the provider is imperative. Blood Transfusion Reactions
A penicillin-allergic patient requires antibiotic therapy. Which is the safest choice?
Amoxicillin
Cefazolin
Erythromycin
Ampicillin-sulbactam
Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic with no cross-reactivity in penicillin-allergic patients. Cephalosporins and beta-lactam combinations risk an allergic response. Antibiotic Allergies
Which lab value indicates hypokalemia in a client receiving loop diuretics?
Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Magnesium 2.1 mEq/L
Sodium 138 mEq/L
Hypokalemia is defined as a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L. Loop diuretics can cause excessive potassium loss leading to muscle weakness and arrhythmias. Monitoring and replacement are necessary. Electrolyte Imbalances
Which action should a PN take when a patient refuses a prescribed medication?
Document refusal and notify the provider
Explain that refusal may worsen condition and give again
Ask family to force patient to comply
Ignore refusal and chart as given
Respecting patient autonomy requires documenting the refusal, informing the provider, and exploring reasons to address concerns. Forcing medication violates ethical standards. Patient Rights
Which finding is most indicative of a stage II pressure ulcer?
Nonblanchable erythema over bony prominence
Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone
Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis
Skin tear without skin loss
A stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss of the epidermis and/or dermis, appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. Nonblanchable erythema is stage I. Pressure Injury Staging
A patient develops peaked T waves, muscle weakness, and oliguria. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypercalcemia
Peaked T waves on ECG, muscle weakness, and oliguria are classic signs of hyperkalemia. This life-threatening imbalance requires immediate treatment. Hyperkalemia Recognition
Which acid-base balance finding is consistent with metabolic acidosis?
pH 7.50, PaCO? 30 mm Hg
pH 7.25, HCO?? 18 mEq/L
pH 7.40, PaO? 90 mm Hg
pH 7.55, HCO?? 28 mEq/L
Metabolic acidosis presents with decreased pH (<7.35) and decreased bicarbonate (<22 mEq/L). Compensatory respiratory changes may alter PaCO?. Acid-Base Disorders
Which IV solution is most appropriate for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis after initial fluid resuscitation?
D5W
0.9% NaCl
0.45% NaCl with 20 mEq KCl
Lactated Ringer’s
After initial stabilization, hypotonic fluids with potassium help correct intracellular dehydration and electrolyte deficits as acidosis resolves. Adding potassium prevents hypokalemia once insulin is administered. DKA Management
A burn patient arrives with 40% TBSA partial-thickness burns. Using the Parkland formula, how much crystalloid is needed in the first 24 hours for a 70 kg adult?
8,400 mL
11,200 mL
14,000 mL
16,800 mL
Parkland formula: 4 mL × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burned = total fluid for first 24 hours. Here: 4 × 70 × 40 = 11,200 mL. Half is given in first 8 hours. Burn Fluid Resuscitation
Which sign indicates a pneumothorax in a patient with a chest tube?
Sudden cessation of tidaling
No bubbling in the suction control chamber
Tidaling in the water seal chamber with respirations
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Sudden absence of tidaling in the water seal chamber may indicate lung re-expansion or an obstruction in the system. Continuous bubbling suggests air leak. Monitoring tidaling helps assess chest tube function. Chest Tube Management
A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. Which intervention is appropriate?
Administer vitamin K
Increase warfarin dose
Draw another INR in 24 hours
Encourage foods rich in vitamin K
An INR above 4.5 increases bleeding risk and warrants vitamin K administration to reverse over-anticoagulation. Warfarin dose adjustments and dietary measures are secondary until INR stabilizes. Warfarin Reversal
Which cardiac rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Ventricular tachycardia with pulse
Ventricular fibrillation
Asystole
Atrial flutter
Ventricular fibrillation is a pulseless rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation and advanced cardiac life support. Asystole is treated with CPR and epinephrine, not defibrillation. ACLS Guidelines
A patient shows signs of sepsis. Which initial fluid resuscitation is recommended?
500 mL D5W over 15 minutes
30 mL/kg of crystalloid within 3 hours
10 mL/kg colloid over 1 hour
1 L normal saline over 24 hours
Early goal-directed therapy for sepsis recommends at least 30 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid within the first 3 hours to restore perfusion. Timely fluid administration reduces mortality. Sepsis Guidelines
Which intervention should be delegated to a nursing assistant for a patient with left-sided heart failure?
Assess lung sounds every shift
Administer furosemide IV
Weigh the patient daily
Evaluate fluid restriction compliance
Daily weights are within the non?licensed assistive personnel scope and essential for monitoring fluid status. Assessment and medication administration require licensed personnel. Scope of Practice
A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation presents with a non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing of late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?
Place client in left lateral position
Increase oxytocin infusion
Encourage the client to bear down
Prepare for immediate amniotomy
Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Positioning the client on her left side improves uterine perfusion. Other interventions follow based on response. Fetal Monitoring
A client with acute pancreatitis has a serum calcium of 6.8 mg/dL. Which clinical sign correlates with hypocalcemia?
Positive Trousseau sign
Bradycardia and lethargy
Bone pain
Polyuria
Hypocalcemia can cause neuromuscular excitability, evidenced by a positive Trousseau sign. This is elicited by occluding the brachial artery, causing carpal spasm. Calcium Imbalances
Which change in central venous pressure (CVP) would the PN expect when hypovolemia is corrected?
Decrease toward zero
Increase toward normal range (2–8 mm Hg)
Remain below normal range
Fluctuate rapidly with respirations
Correcting hypovolemia increases venous return and intravascular volume, raising CVP into the normal range of 2–8 mm Hg. A low CVP indicates depleted volume. Hemodynamic Monitoring
0
{"name":"Which vital sign value indicates a normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult?", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Which vital sign value indicates a normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult?, What is the earliest sign of inflammation at a surgical site?, Which method is the most reliable for confirming nasogastric tube placement before feeding?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}

Study Outcomes

  1. Apply Test-Taking Strategies -

    Utilize proven methods to navigate timed multiple-choice questions efficiently, reducing exam anxiety and improving answer accuracy.

  2. Analyze SLE NCLEX Questions -

    Evaluate select-all-that-apply formats to strengthen critical thinking and solution strategies for complex PN exam items.

  3. Interpret Instant Feedback -

    Review immediate score results and detailed explanations to pinpoint knowledge gaps and guide targeted study efforts.

  4. Reinforce Core Nursing Concepts -

    Solidify understanding of essential PN topics such as pharmacology, patient safety, and physiological principles through repetitive practice.

  5. Adapt to Exam Mode Conditions -

    Familiarize yourself with the NCLEX PN exam mode interface and timing constraints to build confidence and reduce test-day surprises.

  6. Track Performance Over Time -

    Monitor progress across multiple quiz attempts, allowing for measurable improvement and focused exam prep planning.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Fluid and Electrolyte Balance -

    When tackling NCLEX PN practice questions on fluid balance, know normal serum electrolyte ranges (Na+ 135 - 145 mEq/L, K+ 3.5 - 5 mEq/L) as per NCSBN guidelines. Differentiate isotonic (0.9% NaCl), hypotonic (0.45% NaCl), and hypertonic (3% NaCl) solutions to manage patient needs. Mnemonic: use "SALT" (Sodium, Acid-base, Level of consciousness, Tonicity) to recall assessment priorities.

  2. Medication Dosage Calculations -

    Sharpen your skills for medication dosage segments on this PN practice test by using dimensional analysis: (Desired ÷ Available) × Quantity. Practice with real-world units (mg, mL, μg) and try sample problems from Lippincott's NCLEX PN exam prep. Remember the phrase "Dimes Over Hate" to keep your fractions organized and accurate under time pressure.

  3. Prioritization & Delegation -

    For sle nclex questions on patient care, apply the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) and Maslow's hierarchy to rank patient needs effectively. Distinguish stable vs. unstable clients: never delegate unstable tasks to unlicensed personnel. Use the "FAST" mnemonic - first assess, then address, delegate, and teach - to guide clinical decision-making.

  4. Infection Control & Safety -

    In NCLEX PN exam mode, standard precautions are key: follow the CDC's hand hygiene six-step method and the correct PPE donning/doffing order (Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves). Understand the chain of infection to break links at entry points. Always double-check patient identifiers and procedural checklists to prevent errors and ensure safety.

  5. Acid-Base Interpretation -

    Confidently interpret ABGs using normal ranges (pH 7.35 - 7.45, pCO2 35 - 45 mm Hg, HCO3 - 22 - 26 mEq/L) on your NCLEX PN practice questions. Apply the "ROME" mnemonic: Respiratory Opposite (pH and pCO2 move inverse) and Metabolic Equal (pH and HCO3 - move together). This systematic approach speeds up analysis and accuracy under timed conditions.

Make a Quiz (FREE) Copy & Edit This Quiz Create a Quiz with AI

Human Anatomy & Medicine Quizzes

Powered by: Quiz Maker