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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Ready to Ace Your Maternal & Child Health Nursing NCLEX Quiz?

Think you can ace NCLEX maternal and child health questions? Start the quiz now!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper art illustration of pregnant mother nurse newborn icons quiz title text on coral background

Ready to elevate your maternal and child health nursing expertise? Our free Maternal and Child Health Nursing Quiz is designed to test and strengthen your grasp on pregnancy, delivery, and newborn care essentials. Dive into NCLEX maternal and child health questions, from labor and delivery nclex questions to pediatric care, and reinforce your maternal health nursing practice questions. Whether you're brushing up on a child health nursing quiz segment or tackling pediatric nursing NCLEX quiz items, you'll gain targeted feedback and confidence. Take the leap now and master key concepts - start the challenge today!

Easy
What is the correct method for estimating the expected delivery date using Nagele's rule?
Subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period, add 7 days, then add 1 year
Add 9 months and subtract 7 days from the date of conception
Add 3 months to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract 7 days
Subtract 1 month from the first day of the last menstrual period, add 7 days
Nagele’s rule is used to estimate the due date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period, then adding 7 days, and finally adding 1 year to that date. This calculation assumes a 28-day cycle and helps approximate 40 weeks of gestation. It is a standardized method frequently taught in obstetrics. ACOG FAQ on Pregnancy Dating
Which score on the Apgar scale at 1 minute indicates that the newborn is in good condition immediately after birth?
0–3
4–6
7–10
11–12
An Apgar score of 7–10 at 1 minute indicates that the newborn is in good condition and typically requires only routine postnatal care. Scores of 4–6 reflect moderate distress, and 0–3 indicate severe distress requiring immediate intervention. The Apgar assesses Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. NCBI: Apgar Score
Which type of lochia is expected during the first 2 to 3 days postpartum?
Lochia alba
Lochia rubra
Lochia serosa
Lochia fructosa
Lochia rubra is the first type of postpartum discharge, lasting approximately 2 to 3 days, and is characterized by bright red blood. It consists of blood, fetal membranes, decidua, and mucus. Lochia serosa and alba follow rubra in later days as healing progresses. Mayo Clinic: Postpartum Lochia
At what gestational age is a fetus considered full term?
37–42 weeks
32–36 weeks
34–37 weeks
28–32 weeks
A pregnancy is considered full term between 37 and 42 weeks of gestation. Infants born before 37 weeks are preterm, and those born after 42 weeks are post-term. Full-term status is associated with lower neonatal morbidity and mortality. ACOG Full-Term Pregnancy
What is the recommended daily folic acid intake for women of childbearing age to prevent neural tube defects?
0.4 mg (400 mcg)
1.0 mg (1000 mcg)
2.0 mg (2000 mcg)
5.0 mg (5000 mcg)
The CDC recommends 400 mcg (0.4 mg) of folic acid daily for women of childbearing age to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Higher doses may be prescribed for women with previous neural tube defect–affected pregnancies. Folic acid helps close the neural tube in early fetal development. CDC: Folic Acid Recommendations
What is the normal range for fetal heart rate (FHR) during the second trimester?
100–120 bpm
120–160 bpm
160–180 bpm
80–100 bpm
A normal fetal heart rate ranges between 120 and 160 beats per minute during the second trimester. Rates below 120 or above 160 may indicate fetal distress or maternal factors affecting fetal well-being. Continuous monitoring helps assess fetal oxygenation and health. ACOG: Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring
Which routine ultrasound in the second trimester primarily assesses anatomy and fetal development?
Dating scan at 6 weeks
Anatomy scan at 18–20 weeks
Biophysical profile at 36 weeks
Nuchal translucency at 12 weeks
The detailed anatomy scan, performed between 18 and 20 weeks, evaluates fetal structures including the brain, spine, heart, and organs. It also assesses placenta location and amniotic fluid volume. This scan helps detect congenital anomalies and guides pregnancy management. ACOG: Ultrasound in Pregnancy
What is the recommended total weight gain for a woman with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5–24.9) during pregnancy?
11–16 kg (25–35 lbs)
5–9 kg (11–20 lbs)
17–22 kg (37–48 lbs)
23–27 kg (50–60 lbs)
The Institute of Medicine recommends a total weight gain of 25–35 pounds (11–16 kg) for women with a pre-pregnancy BMI between 18.5 and 24.9. Adequate weight gain supports fetal growth while minimizing maternal risks. Deviations can increase the risk of preterm birth or gestational diabetes. NIH: Pregnancy Weight Gain
Which nursing intervention is highest priority for a postpartum client at risk for orthostatic hypotension?
Encourage deep breathing exercises
Assist with ambulation and change positions slowly
Administer prescribed iron supplements
Offer warm blankets to maintain comfort
Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness and falls when clients change position rapidly. Assisting the client with slow position changes and ambulation minimizes risk. Deep breathing and iron address other issues but do not directly prevent falls. NCBI: Orthostatic Hypotension in Postpartum
Which Erikson developmental stage describes an infant’s primary developmental task during the first year?
Autonomy vs. Shame
Initiative vs. Guilt
Trust vs. Mistrust
Industry vs. Inferiority
During the first year, infants face the task of Trust vs. Mistrust. Consistent, loving care fosters a sense of trust in the environment. Inconsistent care can lead to mistrust and insecurity. Erikson’s theory guides pediatric nursing assessments. NCBI: Erikson’s Stages
Medium
What is the first-line medication for preventing seizures in a client with severe preeclampsia?
Magnesium sulfate
Hydralazine
Labetalol
Nifedipine
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent and treat eclamptic seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a CNS depressant and anticonvulsant. Blood levels are monitored for toxicity. ACOG: Preeclampsia Treatment
Which infection is included in the TORCH screening panel that is known to cause congenital anomalies?
Toxoplasmosis
Tuberculosis
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Toxoplasmosis is part of the TORCH panel (Toxoplasmosis, Other, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex) and can cause significant congenital anomalies if acquired in utero. Early detection allows for treatment to reduce fetal risk. CDC: Toxoplasmosis
Why is betamethasone administered to a woman at risk of preterm delivery?
To increase fetal red blood cell production
To accelerate fetal lung maturity
To prevent maternal infection
To increase uterine contractions
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to mothers at risk of preterm delivery to accelerate fetal lung maturity by increasing surfactant production. This reduces neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. It is typically given in two doses 24 hours apart. NIH: Antenatal Corticosteroids
When should intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis be administered for group B streptococcus colonization?
At 28 weeks gestation
During the first stage of labor or rupture of membranes
At 12 hours postpartum
At 36 weeks gestation
Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for GBS-colonized mothers is initiated during labor (first stage) or after membrane rupture to prevent neonatal sepsis. Penicillin or ampicillin is commonly used. Timing optimizes antibiotic transfer to the fetus. ACOG: GBS Prophylaxis
At what gestational age is Rho(D) immune globulin typically administered to an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus?
At 20 weeks gestation
At 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours postpartum
At 36 weeks gestation only
Only if fetal movement decreases
Rho(D) immune globulin is given at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after birth for Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants to prevent maternal sensitization. This prophylaxis reduces hemolytic disease in future pregnancies. ACOG: Rh Incompatibility
Which finding indicates early magnesium sulfate toxicity in a preeclamptic client?
Brisk deep tendon reflexes
Respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute
Elevated heart rate
Hypertension
A respiratory rate below 12 breaths per minute is the earliest sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Other signs include loss of deep tendon reflexes and decreased urine output. Prompt recognition and administration of calcium gluconate are critical. NCBI: Magnesium Sulfate Toxicity
What is the primary treatment intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Oral ondansetron and IV fluids
Magnesium sulfate infusion
High-dose folic acid
Immediate induction of labor
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum includes antiemetics such as ondansetron and intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement to correct dehydration and nutritional deficits. Nutritional support and monitoring are essential. ACOG: Hyperemesis Gravidarum
Which physiological change helps the newborn clear fluid from the lungs after birth?
Increased surfactant production at 24 weeks
Catecholamine release during labor
Closure of ductus arteriosus
Decrease in alveolar surface tension
Catecholamine surge during labor promotes absorption of lung fluid and enhances surfactant activity, aiding the newborn’s transition to air breathing. Surfactant production peaks later in gestation. Ductus arteriosus closure happens postpartum but does not clear lung fluid. NCBI: Fetal to Neonatal Transition
What is the priority nursing action for a client experiencing postpartum hemorrhage?
Massage the fundus
Increase oral fluids
Administer iron supplements
Perform fundal ultrasound
Fundal massage is the first-line intervention to stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding during postpartum hemorrhage. It helps the uterus clamp down on bleeding vessels. Further interventions depend on response to massage. ACOG: Postpartum Hemorrhage
Which component of breast milk provides passive immunity to the newborn?
Lactose
Colostrum rich in IgA
Casein protein
Medium-chain triglycerides
Colostrum, produced in the first few days postpartum, is rich in immunoglobulin A (IgA), which provides passive immunity to the newborn’s gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts. This helps protect against infections. Mature milk has lower IgA concentration. NIH: Colostrum and Immunity
Hard
What fetal heart rate pattern is characterized by abrupt decreases with variable timing related to contractions and suggests cord compression?
Early decelerations
Variable decelerations
Late decelerations
Prolonged decelerations
Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in FHR unrelated to the timing of contractions and often indicate umbilical cord compression. They can vary in shape and duration. Management includes repositioning and oxygen administration. ACOG: FHR Patterns
Which maneuver is most appropriate to relieve shoulder dystocia during delivery?
McRoberts maneuver
Episiotomy
Fundal pressure
Vaginal packing
The McRoberts maneuver, involving hyperflexion of the maternal hips onto the abdomen, straightens the sacrum and opens the pelvic inlet to relieve impacted fetal shoulders. It is the first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia. Episiotomy alone does not resolve dystocia. NIH: Shoulder Dystocia Management
Which sign is most indicative of abruptio placentae?
Painless vaginal bleeding
Dark red painful bleeding with uterine tenderness
White, odorless discharge
Late decelerations on FHR only
Abruptio placentae often presents with sudden, painful, dark red vaginal bleeding and a tender, rigid uterus. Pain distinguishes it from placenta previa. It can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. ACOG: Placental Abruption
What condition occurs when the fetal presenting part cannot pass through the maternal pelvis because of disproportion?
Placenta previa
Cephalopelvic disproportion
Uterine inversion
Prolapsed cord
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) refers to a mismatch between fetal head size and maternal pelvic dimensions, preventing vaginal delivery. It is diagnosed by assessment of labor progress and may require cesarean delivery. Risk factors include macrosomia and small maternal pelvis. NIH: Cephalopelvic Disproportion
Which clinical finding is the earliest sign of an amniotic fluid embolism?
Sudden hypotension and respiratory distress
Gradual onset of back pain
Uterine atony
Foul-smelling lochia
An amniotic fluid embolism presents abruptly with hypotension, respiratory distress, and can rapidly progress to coagulopathy. It is a catastrophic obstetric emergency. Early recognition and supportive management are critical. NCBI: Amniotic Fluid Embolism
Which sign in a newborn requires immediate blood glucose measurement and intervention?
Jitteriness with poor feeding
Loud crying
Strong suck reflex
Pink skin color
Jitteriness and poor feeding in a newborn are classic signs of hypoglycemia, which requires prompt bedside glucose testing and intervention to prevent neurologic damage. Other signs include lethargy and temperature instability. ACOG: Neonatal Hypoglycemia
Which tool is recommended for screening postpartum depression?
Glasgow Coma Scale
Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale
APGAR
Braden Scale
The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a validated 10-item questionnaire used to screen for postpartum depression in new mothers. A score of 10 or above suggests further evaluation is needed. Early detection improves maternal and infant outcomes. NIH: EPDS
What does a lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio greater than 2:1 in amniotic fluid indicate?
Fetal lung immaturity
Adequate fetal lung maturity
Risk of neural tube defects
Placental insufficiency
An L/S ratio above 2:1 suggests mature fetal lungs and lower risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. This measurement assesses surfactant production in the amniotic fluid. It guides decisions on the timing of delivery in high-risk pregnancies. NCBI: L/S Ratio
Which umbilical cord care practice reduces the risk of omphalitis in newborns?
Apply triple dye after each diaper change
Keep the cord stump clean and dry exposed to air
Cover with an airtight plastic wrap
Immerse in warm water baths daily
Keeping the cord stump clean, dry, and exposed to air minimizes bacterial overgrowth and risk of omphalitis. Avoid covering it with airtight dressings and handle it gently during diaper changes. Triple dye is not routinely recommended in many settings. WHO: Umbilical Cord Care
Which vaccine is recommended to be given to newborns before hospital discharge?
Hepatitis B vaccine
MMR vaccine
Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine
Varicella vaccine
The first dose of hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for all medically stable newborns before hospital discharge to prevent perinatal transmission. Other vaccines are given later according to the immunization schedule. This early dose provides long-term protection. CDC: Hepatitis B Vaccination
Expert
Which laboratory finding is characteristic of HELLP syndrome in a pregnant client?
Elevated platelets and high hemoglobin
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
Low liver enzymes and leukocytosis
Hyperglycemia and hypernatremia
HELLP syndrome is defined by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. It is a severe form of preeclampsia that can lead to liver hemorrhage and DIC. Early diagnosis and prompt delivery are critical. ACOG: HELLP Syndrome
Which medication is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic in preterm labor, and what is a primary nursing consideration?
Nifedipine; monitor for hypotension
Terbutaline; monitor for maternal tachycardia and pulmonary edema
Magnesium sulfate; monitor for hyperreflexia
Indomethacin; monitor for maternal renal function
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist tocolytic that relaxes uterine smooth muscle to delay preterm labor. It can cause maternal tachycardia, palpitations, and pulmonary edema, so vital signs and respiratory status must be closely monitored. NIH: Tocolytics
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Study Outcomes

  1. Apply Evidence-Based Prenatal Assessment -

    Utilize maternal health nursing practice questions to identify risk factors, perform thorough prenatal evaluations, and promote healthy pregnancy outcomes.

  2. Analyze Labor Management Scenarios -

    Interpret clinical data from the maternal and child health nursing quiz to determine appropriate labor interventions and ensure safe delivery progress.

  3. Evaluate Maternal and Fetal Vital Signs -

    Assess vital sign trends and laboratory results to detect complications early and inform evidence-based decision-making during pregnancy and labor.

  4. Assess Newborn Adaptation -

    Apply pediatric nursing NCLEX quiz criteria to evaluate neonatal adaptation, initiate immediate care measures, and support optimal newborn health.

  5. Interpret NCLEX Question Strategies -

    Practice with NCLEX maternal and child health questions to enhance critical-thinking skills, refine test-taking strategies, and improve exam readiness.

  6. Communicate Educational Guidance -

    Develop clear, patient-centered teaching plans and effectively communicate care instructions to mothers and families in maternal and child health nursing contexts.

Cheat Sheet

  1. GTPAL Mnemonic for Obstetric History -

    The GTPAL mnemonic organizes obstetric history into Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, and Living, ensuring a complete maternal profile before delivery. For example, a primigravida with one term birth has G1T1P0A0L1, which you can quickly recall with the phrase "1st baby, one term." Mastering GTPAL boosts your accuracy on maternal and child health nursing quiz and maternal health nursing practice questions.

  2. Interpreting the APGAR Score -

    The APGAR assessment at 1 and 5 minutes evaluates Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration to quickly gauge neonatal transition. Each category scores 0-2, with totals from 0-10; a score ≥7 is reassuring per AAP guidelines. Use the formula "APGAR = A+P+G+A+R" to recall components in any pediatric nursing NCLEX quiz.

  3. Fetal Heart Rate Deceleration Patterns (VEAL CHOP) -

    The VEAL CHOP mnemonic links FHR changes to causes: Variable decels = Cord compression, Early = Head compression, Accelerations = Okay, Late = Placental insufficiency. Recognizing these patterns in electronic monitoring guides timely interventions like repositioning or oxygen supplementation. Practice with sample strips from ACOG to sharpen skills on maternal and child health nursing quiz scenarios.

  4. Magnesium Sulfate in Preeclampsia Management -

    Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent eclamptic seizures in severe preeclampsia, administered as a 4 - 6 g IV loading dose followed by a 1 - 2 g/hr infusion per AWHONN protocols. Monitor deep tendon reflexes and respiratory rate to detect toxicity, remembering the mnemonic "Mag SO4 STOP": Slurred speech, Tiredness, Oliguria, Patellar reflex gone. Timely recognition and interventions are essential when answering NCLEX maternal and child health questions.

  5. Newborn Thermoregulation Principles -

    Newborns lose heat via conduction, convection, radiation, and evaporation, so establishing a neutral thermal environment of 36.5 - 37.5 °C (97.7 - 99.5 °F) is vital to prevent hypothermia. Use skin-to-skin contact and warm incubator settings, and apply the "BEAR" mnemonic for newborn care: Bundling, Environmental control, Assessment, and RAdiator. Mastering these strategies ensures safe care and boosts your confidence for the pediatric nursing NCLEX quiz.

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