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Quizzes > Health & Medicine > Human Anatomy & Medicine

Pediatric Questions Quiz: Challenge Yourself and Score High!

Sharpen your skills with peds questions in this fun pediatric quiz!

Difficulty: Moderate
2-5mins
Learning OutcomesCheat Sheet
Paper cut style pediatric quiz illustration showing doctor stethoscope test sheet and score meter on teal background

Ready to sharpen your skills with pediatric questions and dive into pediatric trivia? Our Free Pediatric Questions Quiz is designed just for healthcare students and professionals who want to test their peds questions knowledge and boost confidence in child care. You'll tackle real-world scenarios, explore key concepts through engaging pediatric quiz challenges, and even try a pediatric nursing practice review or explore early childhood case questions to deepen your understanding. Perfect for anyone preparing a children health quiz or seeking fun pediatric trivia, this quiz offers instant feedback and helpful explanations. Jump in now - your next "aha!" moment awaits with every question!

At what age should an infant typically be able to sit unsupported?
4 months
6 months
9 months
12 months
Most infants can sit unsupported by around six months as head and trunk control improve. Sitting independently is a key gross motor milestone. Delays beyond nine months may warrant further developmental evaluation. CDC Milestones
Which vaccine is first given to newborns before hospital discharge in the US?
Hepatitis B vaccine
DTaP vaccine
MMR vaccine
Varicella vaccine
The first dose of hepatitis B vaccine is administered within 24 hours of birth to prevent perinatal transmission. Early immunization dramatically reduces chronic hepatitis B infection. This is standard in the US immunization schedule. CDC Hep B Birth Dose
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants?
Influenza A virus
Adenovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Parainfluenza virus
RSV is responsible for up to 80% of bronchiolitis cases in infants. It infects the lower respiratory tract causing wheezing and respiratory distress. Management is primarily supportive. AAP Bronchiolitis
Which reflex is present at birth and disappears by 6 months?
Moro reflex
Rooting reflex
Parachute reflex
Stepping reflex
The Moro reflex (startle reflex) appears at birth and typically resolves by 5–6 months. Its persistence beyond this age may indicate neurological dysfunction. It involves symmetric abduction and adduction of the arms when startled. Moro Reflex
What is the recommended daily iron intake for a 6-month-old infant?
5 mg
7 mg
10 mg
12 mg
Infants aged 6–12 months require 11 mg of iron daily according to the Institute of Medicine. Some guidelines round to 7–8 mg for formula-fed and breastfed infants with supplementation. Adequate iron supports hemoglobin synthesis and neurodevelopment. NIH Iron Requirements
Which of the following is the most common congenital heart defect?
Tetralogy of Fallot
Ventricular septal defect
Transposition of the great arteries
Coarctation of the aorta
Ventricular septal defect is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly, representing about 20–30% of all congenital heart defects. Small VSDs may close spontaneously, while larger defects require surgical repair. Early detection is critical to prevent complications. AHA CHD
At what age is the first dose of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine given?
2 months
6 months
12 months
15 months
The first MMR dose is administered at 12–15 months to optimize immunogenicity and reduce interference by maternal antibodies. A second dose is given at 4–6 years for full protection. Measles outbreaks often occur in unvaccinated populations. CDC MMR Schedule
Which sign indicates moderate dehydration in a toddler?
Lethargy
Sunken fontanelle
Bradycardia
Cool, clammy skin
A sunken fontanelle is a key indicator of moderate dehydration in infants and toddlers. Other signs include decreased tear production and delayed capillary refill. Early recognition guides appropriate rehydration therapy. Uptodate Dehydration
What is the typical presenting symptom of intussusception in infants?
Nonbilious vomiting
Currant jelly stools
Diarrhea
Recurrent aspirations
Currant jelly stools result from intestinal mucosa sloughing and blood mixing with mucus in intussusception. It often presents with colicky abdominal pain and drawing knees up to the chest. Early ultrasound diagnosis followed by air enema reduction is critical. Radiology Assistant
What is the first-line treatment for a tympanostomy tube otorrhea?
Oral amoxicillin
Topical fluoroquinolone drops
IV ceftriaxone
Oral azithromycin
Topical fluoroquinolone drops are effective against the common pathogens without systemic side effects and bypass the need for systemic absorption. Oral antibiotics are less effective for tube-related otorrhea. Tube removal is rarely necessary. AAP Otitis Media
Which neonate is at highest risk for hypoglycemia after birth?
Infant of diabetic mother
Preterm infant of 38 weeks
Term infant with low birth weight
Infant delivered via cesarean for breech
Infants of diabetic mothers often produce excess insulin in utero and can become hypoglycemic after clamping of the cord. Early feeding and monitoring of serum glucose are essential. Management includes feeding or IV dextrose if levels are low. CPS Hypoglycemia
Which growth chart is appropriate for a 2-year-old child?
CDC weight-for-length chart
CDC BMI-for-age chart
WHO BMI-for-age chart
WHO growth standard for under 2
For children aged 2–5 years, the WHO Child Growth Standards BMI-for-age charts are recommended globally. These charts are based on a diverse, healthy cohort. CDC charts cover ages 2–20 but BMI-for-age WHO is preferred internationally for under 5. WHO Growth Standards
Which of the following is a red flag in developmental screening?
Birthday smiles at 2 months
No babbling by 9 months
Stacking two blocks by 18 months
Imitates actions by 2 years
Absence of babbling by 9 months suggests possible hearing impairment or developmental delay. Early intervention improves outcomes in language development. Other milestones help differentiate normal variation. AAP Developmental
What is the most common pathogen in acute otitis media?
Haemophilus influenzae non-typeable
Moraxella catarrhalis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae accounts for about 50% of AOM cases in children. Non-typeable H. influenzae and M. catarrhalis are also common. This guides empiric antibiotic choice, usually high-dose amoxicillin. AAP Otitis Media
What is the first-line management of mild dehydration in a 3-year-old?
IV isotonic saline
Oral rehydration solution
Oral water only
Immediate NG tube rehydration
Oral rehydration solution provides balanced electrolytes and glucose to enhance sodium and water absorption. It is effective for mild to moderate dehydration. IV fluids are reserved for severe cases or if oral intake is not possible. WHO ORS Guidelines
Which electrolyte disturbance is most characteristic of pyloric stenosis?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis with hypochloremia
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Projectile vomiting in pyloric stenosis leads to loss of gastric H+ and Cl? causing hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Volume depletion stimulates bicarbonate reabsorption. Correcting electrolytes before surgery is essential. Pyloric Stenosis
Which congenital infection causes a “blueberry muffin” rash in neonates?
Cytomegalovirus
Group B Streptococcus
Herpes simplex virus
Listeria monocytogenes
CMV can cause extramedullary hematopoiesis manifesting as a blueberry muffin rash. Other signs include petechiae, jaundice, and sensorineural hearing loss. Congenital CMV is diagnosed via PCR of saliva or urine. CDC CMV
Which of the following indicates Kawasaki disease?
Strawberry tongue
Bullous impetigo
Erythema infectiosum
Molluscum contagiosum
Strawberry tongue is a classic finding in Kawasaki disease along with prolonged fever, conjunctivitis, rash, and mucous membrane changes. Coronary aneurysms are the major complication. Treatment with IVIG and aspirin is essential. AHA Kawasaki
Which test is most sensitive for detecting hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
Plain abdominal X-ray
Upper GI series
Abdominal ultrasound
CT scan
Ultrasound shows pyloric muscle thickness >3 mm and length >15–18 mm with high sensitivity and specificity. It is noninvasive and lacks radiation exposure. Upper GI series is reserved if ultrasound is inconclusive. Pyloric Stenosis Ultrasound
Which of these is a risk factor for pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
Down syndrome
Celiac disease
Type 1 diabetes
Hemophilia A
Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of ALL. Genetic and immunologic factors contribute to leukemogenesis. Monitoring includes regular blood counts. NCI ALL
In pediatric asthma, which spirometry finding confirms reversible airway obstruction?
FEV1 increase >12% after bronchodilator
FEV1 decrease >20% after exercise
FVC decrease >15% after bronchodilator
FEV1/FVC ratio increase >10% after bronchodilator
An increase in FEV1 of more than 12% and 200 mL after bronchodilator use indicates reversible airway obstruction typical of asthma. This helps differentiate from fixed obstructive or restrictive lung disease. GINA Guidelines
Which clinical feature is most consistent with nephrotic syndrome in children?
Hematuria
Proteinuria >40 mg/m²/hr
Pyuria
Hypernatremia
Nephrotic syndrome is defined by heavy proteinuria (>40 mg/m²/hour), hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Hematuria is more characteristic of nephritic syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by urine protein quantification. NKF Nephrotic
Which condition presents with café-au-lait spots and axillary freckling?
Neurofibromatosis type I
Tuberous sclerosis
McCune-Albright syndrome
Legius syndrome
NF1 presents with six or more café-au-lait macules and axillary/inguinal freckling. Lisch nodules in the iris are also common. NF1 is caused by mutations in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17. GeneReviews NF1
What is the recommended treatment for a child with moderate persistent asthma?
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid PRN
Daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus leukotriene modifier
High-dose oral steroids daily
SABA only PRN
Moderate persistent asthma requires daily controller therapy such as low-dose ICS plus a leukotriene receptor antagonist or LABA. PRN SABA is used for breakthrough symptoms. Regular monitoring and stepwise adjustments optimize control. GINA Guidelines
Which acid-base disturbance is most likely in a child with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
DKA leads to accumulation of ketoacids producing a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Patients hyperventilate (Kussmaul respirations) to compensate. Treatment includes IV fluids, insulin, and electrolyte correction. ADA DKA
Which sign differentiates bronchiolitis from asthma in infants?
Episodic wheezing relieved by bronchodilator
Presence of fever and upper respiratory prodrome
Chronic cough over months
Wheezing only with exercise
Bronchiolitis often follows an upper respiratory prodrome with fever and rhinorrhea before wheezing and respiratory distress. Asthma is typically recurrent and responsive to bronchodilators. Viral etiology (often RSV) is key in bronchiolitis. AAP Bronchiolitis
Which gene mutation is associated with cystic fibrosis?
CFTR gene
FBN1 gene
HBB gene
SMN1 gene
Mutations in the CFTR gene result in dysfunctional chloride channels leading to thick secretions in lungs and pancreas. The ?F508 deletion is the most common mutation. Diagnosis is confirmed by sweat chloride testing or genetic analysis. CFF CFTR
Which of the following metabolic disorders presents with maple syrup–scented urine?
Phenylketonuria
Maple syrup urine disease
Homocystinuria
Tyrosinemia
Maple syrup urine disease is due to branched-chain ?-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency, causing buildup of leucine, isoleucine, and valine. The characteristic sweet odor is pathognomonic. Early dietary management prevents neurologic damage. MSUD
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in children under 8 years due to risk of permanent teeth discoloration?
Azithromycin
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Cephalexin
Tetracyclines bind to calcium in developing teeth, causing permanent discoloration and enamel hypoplasia. Doxycycline is in this class and contraindicated under 8 years except in special circumstances. Alternative antibiotics should be chosen. FDA Tetracyclines
What is the optimal tidal volume to use during mechanical ventilation in pediatric ARDS?
15 mL/kg
10 mL/kg
6 mL/kg
3 mL/kg
Low tidal volume (6 mL/kg of predicted body weight) ventilation reduces volutrauma and improves outcomes in ARDS. Pediatric ventilator strategies extrapolate adult data. Higher volumes increase risk of barotrauma. ATS ARDSnet
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)?
Platelet count >450,000/mm³
Elevated LDH and schistocytes on smear
Normal creatinine
Elevated albumin
HUS is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes, elevated LDH), thrombocytopenia, and acute renal injury. Platelets are consumed in microthrombi. Early supportive care and dialysis may be needed. NKF HUS
Which of the following indicates Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome?
Microcephaly
Macroglossia
Hypoglycemia only
Finger clubbing
Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome presents with macroglossia, organomegaly, and hemihypertrophy. Neonatal hypoglycemia and increased tumor risk (Wilms tumor) are common. Genetic imprinting abnormalities on chromosome 11 are implicated. Beckwith-Wiedemann
Which cardiac lesion causes a machinery-like murmur?
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
A PDA produces a continuous 'machinery' murmur due to turbulent flow between the aorta and pulmonary artery throughout systole and diastole. It may lead to heart failure if large. Indomethacin or surgical ligation closes a hemodynamically significant PDA. Medscape PDA
Which electrolyte abnormality occurs with refeeding syndrome in malnourished children?
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypercalcemia
Refeeding shifts phosphate into cells for ATP production leading to hypophosphatemia. This can cause muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and arrhythmias. Electrolytes should be monitored and replaced during nutritional rehabilitation. Refeeding Syndrome
Which organism causes the majority of neonatal sepsis within the first 24 hours?
Group B Streptococcus
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Enterococcus faecalis
Early-onset neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by maternal Group B Streptococcus transmitted during delivery. Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis has reduced incidence but it remains a leading cause. Empiric treatment includes ampicillin and gentamicin. CDC GBS
Which diagnostic test confirms biliary atresia in an infant with direct hyperbilirubinemia?
HIDA scan after phenobarbital priming
Ultrasound alone
Serum alpha-1 antitrypsin
MRCP without contrast
A HIDA scan after phenobarbital priming shows no excretion of tracer into the gut, confirming biliary atresia. Early diagnosis allows for Kasai portoenterostomy to improve outcomes. Ultrasound may show absent gallbladder but is not definitive. Biliary Atresia
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for neonatal meningitis due to Listeria?
Ceftriaxone
Ampicillin
Vancomycin
Cefotaxime
Listeria monocytogenes is intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins. Ampicillin (often with gentamicin) is the treatment of choice for neonatal listerial meningitis. Empiric neonatal meningitis regimens include ampicillin plus a third-generation cephalosporin. Uptodate Neonatal Meningitis
Which tumor marker is elevated in hepatoblastoma?
Alpha-fetoprotein
Beta-hCG
CA-125
LDH
Hepatoblastoma, the most common pediatric liver tumor, is associated with markedly elevated alpha-fetoprotein. Monitoring AFP levels helps in diagnosis and tracking treatment response. Imaging and biopsy confirm the diagnosis. ACS Hepatoblastoma
Which presenting sign is most common in pediatric mitochondrial disorders?
Exercise intolerance and muscle weakness
Hematuria
Jaundice
Diabetes insipidus
Mitochondrial disorders often affect high-energy–requiring tissues leading to exercise intolerance and muscle weakness. They may also present with lactic acidosis, seizures, and multi-organ involvement. Genetic testing and muscle biopsy assist diagnosis. Mitochondrial Diseases
Which pharmacogenetic test guides thiopurine dosing in pediatric ALL?
TPMT enzyme activity assay
CYP2D6 genotyping
G6PD level
HLA-B*5701 typing
Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency can lead to severe myelosuppression when standard thiopurine doses are used. Measuring TPMT activity or genotyping informs dose adjustments in ALL therapy. This reduces toxicity while maintaining efficacy. FDA TPMT
Which laboratory value best assesses treatment response in neonatal hypothyroidism?
Serum thyroxine (T4)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Reverse T3
Thyroglobulin
TSH levels are most sensitive to adjustments in thyroid hormone replacement. After starting levothyroxine, TSH normalizes before T4 stabilizes. Monitoring occurs every 2–4 weeks initially. AACE Pediatric Thyroid
Which is the most sensitive imaging modality for early Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease?
Plain radiograph
Bone scan
MRI of the hip
CT scan
MRI can detect early ischemic changes in the femoral head before radiographic findings appear. It guides prognosis and treatment decisions. Radiographs may lag months behind the onset of disease. Legg-Calvé-Perthes
Which cytokine is a key mediator in pediatric cytokine release syndrome after CAR-T therapy?
IL-2
IL-6
TNF-alpha
IFN-gamma
IL-6 is central to the pathophysiology of cytokine release syndrome, driving fever and capillary leak. Tocilizumab, an anti–IL-6 receptor antibody, is used for severe CRS. Monitoring includes ferritin and C-reactive protein. CRS Review
In critically ill children, which marker best predicts mortality risk?
Serum lactate level
White blood cell count
Serum albumin
Serum magnesium
Elevated lactate indicates tissue hypoperfusion and correlates with mortality in pediatric ICU. It aids in early recognition of shock and guides resuscitation. Serial lactate clearance improves prognostic accuracy. NEJM Lactate
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Study Outcomes

  1. Understand Key Pediatric Conditions -

    Identify and differentiate common childhood illnesses by working through pediatric questions and real-world case scenarios.

  2. Apply Diagnostic Reasoning -

    Use pediatric quiz cases to apply clinical reasoning and make informed diagnostic decisions for various pediatric presentations.

  3. Analyze Symptom Patterns -

    Analyze symptom clusters in peds questions to distinguish between similar pediatric conditions and improve diagnostic accuracy.

  4. Evaluate Management Strategies -

    Assess evidence-based treatment and management approaches for common pediatric illnesses highlighted in our pediatric quiz.

  5. Recall Essential Pediatric Concepts -

    Memorize key terminologies and principles in pediatric care to strengthen your foundational knowledge before tackling more challenging pediatric questions.

  6. Engage with Pediatric Trivia -

    Enjoy our fun pediatric trivia and children health quiz questions to reinforce learning and test your knowledge in an entertaining way.

Cheat Sheet

  1. Age-Based Vital Signs -

    Memorize heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure norms by age to excel at peds questions and pediatric trivia. For systolic BP, use SBP ≈ (2 × age in years) + 70 mmHg; AAP guidelines list HR 100 - 190 bpm for neonates and RR 30 - 60 breaths/min. Practicing these ranges in a children health quiz can boost recall during real-world scenarios.

  2. Pediatric Dosing Formulas -

    Apply weight-based rules like Clark's Rule (weight in lb ÷ 150 × adult dose) or Young's Rule (age ÷ [age + 12] × adult dose) when solving medication dosing questions. The Broselow tape is also a validated tool in emergencies, mapping length to dose for quick calculation. Regular practice with these formulas in a pediatric quiz ensures safe, accurate dosing decisions.

  3. Growth Chart Interpretation -

    Use WHO/CDC growth charts to track weight-for-age, length-for-age, and head-circumference percentiles; failure to thrive is <5th percentile or dropping two major percentile lines. Mnemonic "WIND" (Weight, Index length, Nutrition, Development) helps you recall key monitoring parameters. Case-based practice in pediatric trivia strengthens your ability to spot abnormal growth patterns.

  4. Infant Immunization Schedule -

    Memorize the CDC infant schedule: Hep B at birth, 2, and 6 months; plus DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV, and rotavirus at 2, 4, and 6 months. Use the mnemonic "2-4-6 HIP DR" (HepB, IPV, PCV, Hib, DTaP, Rotavirus) to recall the 2-, 4-, and 6-month vaccines. Frequent quizzes on immunization timing reinforce proper vaccine administration.

  5. Assessing Dehydration Severity -

    Differentiate mild, moderate, and severe dehydration by clinical signs: mild (<5% fluid loss, normal vitals), moderate (6 - 9%, tachycardia, dry mucosa), severe (≥10%, hypotension, altered mental status) per WHO guidelines. The "6-9-10" rule helps remember these cutoff percentages and corresponding signs. Practice sample cases in a children health quiz to sharpen dehydration assessment skills.

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