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NEETPG Full Scale Mock Test 1831 Call 9000868356 Enroll www.onlinembbs.com

Obstruction of the hepatic vein by thrombosis or a web is
Schatzki’s ring
Plummer Vinson Syndrome
Budd Chmri syndrome
Caroli’s disease
Peripheral meurysm most ommonly located at
Femoral artery
Popliteal artery
Brachial artery
Axillary artery
Congenital hydrocoele is best treated by
Eversion of sac
Excision of sac
Lord’s procedure
Herniotomy
The best treatment for uncomplicated fractures of the ribs is
Leave it alone
Immediate surgery and wiring of the fragments
Strapping of the chest
Injection of local anesthetic around the involved intercostal nerve
The surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infancy is
Ramstedt’s operation
Truncal vagotomy
Heller’s operation
Delorome’s operation
DEXA scanning is done for
Bone mineral density
Osteomyelitis
Avascular necrosis
Stress fracture
What Is the commonest complication of fracture neck of femur?
Non-union
Femoral artery injury
Malunion
Sciatie nerve injury
Osgood schlatters disease is associated with osteochondritis of
Patella
Femur medical condyle
Tibial tubercle
Femur lateral condyle
March fracture usually involves
1st metatarsal
2nd metatarsal
4th metatarsal
5th metatarsal
Trasal tunnel syndrome is associated with which of the nerves?
Anterior tibial nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve
Which is false in rickets?
Infant may present with tetany or convulsions
Muscular spasticity is a feature
Rachitic rosary may be present
Harrison’s sulcus may be present
Injury of radial nerve in spiral grove of lum leads to
Ape-thumb deformity
Wrist drop
Claw hand
Pointing index finger
Fracture clavicle is most common at
M1/3-L2/3
M2/3-L1/3
M1/2-L1/2
M1/4-L1/4
Charcot’s joint may be present in all the following EXCEPT
Neurosyphillis
Diabetes mellitus
Poliomyelitis
Multiple sclerosis
Hand to knee gait is seen in
Gluteus medius weakness
Hamstring weakness
Ilio-psoas weakness
Quadriceps weakness
Pin index of nitrous oxide cylinder is
2,5
3,6
3,5
1,6
The triad of General Anesthesia include all the following EXCEPT
Controlled hypotension
Analgesia
Amnesia
Muscle relaxation
International colour code of helium cylinder is
Green
Black
Brown
White and black
PH of the thiopentone Na is
11.5
10.5
9.5
8.5
Adverse effects of central neuraxial black include all EXCEPT
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Nausen and vomiting
Urinary retention
Which of the following statement regarding retrobulbar neuritis is incorrect
Loss of vision
Pain near the insertion of superior rectus
Red green colour blindness
Optic dise swelling
Misdirection of eyelashes is
Biepharitis
Madarosis
Tylosis
Trichiasis
Selective laser trabeculoplasty is indicated in
Primary open angle glaucoma
Absolute glaucoma
Primary angle closure glaucoma
Flateau iris syndrome
The commonest cause of both unilateral and bilateral proptosis is
Orbital cellulitis
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Orbital tumours
Thyroid exophthalmos
Hordeolum internum is
Acute infection of meibomian gland
Acute infection of zeiss gland
Chronic infection of meibomian gland
Acute infection of moll’s gland
Chareot-Leyden crystals in the nasa inucin is seen in
Vasomotor rhinitis
Atrophic rhinitis
Allergic fungal sin isitis
Macormycosis
The commonest organism causing acute tonsillitis is
Beta baemolytic streptococcus
Staphyloccus aureus
Haemophilus influenza
Ebstein barr virus
The laser used to treat after cataract is
Argon laser
Dicyle laser
Nd-YAG laser
Excimer laser
Chalazion is a chronic granuiomatous inflammation of
Glands of Moll
Glands of Zeis
Glands of Krause
Meibomian Glands
The posterior boundary of the paraglottic space of larynx is formed by
Infra-hycid epiglottis
Hyoepiglottic ligament
Thyrohycid membrance
Pyriform fossa mucosa
Haernatocolpos causes
Retention of urine
Primary amenorihoea
Both the above
Neither (a) or (b)
Pearl index is related with
Degree of contracted pelvis
Pre induction cervical scoring
Assessment of high risk pregnancy
Contraceptive effectiveness
All the following are causes of Disseminated intravascular congulation (DIC) EXCEPT
Intrauterine death
Missed abortion
Abruptio placentac
Multiple pregnancy
Urine formation in intra uterine life starts at
3 months
4 months
5 months
6 months
Molar pregnancy is diagnosed best by
Clinical examination
Ultrasound
hCG
None of the above
The best way to diagnose the degree of placenta previa is
Trans vaginal sonography
Double set-up examination
Observation during C.S.
Examination of placenta after delivery
Mature graffian follicle preovulatory is less than
12 mm
14 mm
18 mm
25 mm
Commonest type of ruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy is
Isthmic
Ampullo
Interestilial
Ficobrial
Trichomoniasis is a
Bacteria
Fungus
Virus
Protozon
Which is last to appear during puberty?
Theiarche
Growth spurt
Menarche
Adrenarche
Fibroid Uterus
Usually increases after menopause
Usually regresses after menopause
Usually remains the same after menopause
None of the above
Incidence of Ectopic pregnancy is more with
OC Pills
Cu T 200
Progestasert
Multiload IUCD
Pelvic inflammatory disease can cause
Dysmenorchoea
Menstrual symptoms
Both the above
None of the above
Granulose cell produces estrogen with the help of
Alkaline phosphatise
Aromatase
Acid phosphatise
Glucuronidase
Cystaglandular hyperplasia is seen with
Normal menstrual cycle
Amenorrhea & bleeding
Hypomenorrhoea
None of the above
Decubitus ulcer in prolapse uterus is due to
Friction
Venous congestion
Trauma
Malignancy
Asymptomatic myomas
Needs follow up
Does not need removal if it is small
All of the above
None of the above
Contraceptives contraindicated in HIV positive patient is
IUCD
COC pills
Mini pill
Barrier methods
Scortest diameter on foetal skull is
Bitemporal
Biparital
Verticomental
Suboccipito bregmatic
Abruption of placenta occurs in all EXCEPT
Smokers
Folic acid deficiency
Alcoholics
PIH
Biopsy of the exposed surface of the palatine tonsil reveals the following type of tissue
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
All of the following given below are attached to spine of sphenoid EXCEPT
Sphenomandibular ligament
Anterior ligament of malleus
Tensor tympani muscle
Laieraf prerygoid muscle
Pulsations of the following artery can be felt over the zygoma
Transverse facial artery
Facial artery
Deep temporal artery
Superficial temporal artery
The axillary nerve supplies
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Deltoid
Pectoralis Major
The dorsalis pedis artery terminates at the
Base of the proximal phalanx of the haltux
First metatarso phalangeal joint
Dorsum of ankle joint
Proximal part of first inter metatarsal space
Shifting of the oxygen dissociation curve to the right indicate
The affinity is less and more O2 released in the tissue
Affinity is more and less oxygen is released to tissues
Amount of oxygen transported is less
More carbon dioxide is transported
The blood pressure regulatory system that is labeled as a buffer system is
Baroreceptor
Chemoreceptor
Kidney
CNS ischemic response
How would a drug that competes with Ach for receptor at the motor and plate affect skeletal muscle? It would
Produce uncontrolled muscle spasms
Cause the muscles to contract and be unable to relax
Cause muscles to relax and be unable to contract
Make the muscles more excitable
The primary cause for the development of shock following hemorrhage is
Marked vasodilation
Decreased blood volume
Inadequate output by the heart
Obstruction to blood flow
The presence of large quantities of un-reabsorbed solutes in the renal tubule causes an increase in urine volume this is called
Osmotic dieresis
Osmotic natriuresis
Water intoxication
Water dieresis
In a human genome project, scientist notices that one strand of the DNA molecule contains 20 thymine (T) , 25 cytosine (C) , 30 guanine (G) and 22 adenine (A) residues, How many of each of the bases are bound in the complete double-stranded molecule?
T
T
T
T
Primary disturbance in metabolic alkalosis is characterized by one of the following
pCO2
 HCO2-
pO2
 pH
Farber’s disease is due to the deficiency of
Ceraminidase
Sphingomyelinase
Glucocerebrosidase
Neuraminidase
The pathway that can produce energy even in the absence of O2 is
TCA Cycle
Glycolysis
Fatty acid oxidation
Respiratory chain
Which one of the following statements about the urea cycle is correct
The pathway occurs exclusively in mitochondrial matrix of liver
ATP is required for the reaction in which citrulline is formed
Two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into urea enter the cycle as ammonia and aspartate
Urea is produced directly by the hydrolysis of ornithine
The following drug is NOT useful during acute attack of bronhial asthma
Salbutamol
Hydrocortisone
Sromolyn sodium
Theophylline
Alteplase differs from streptokinase as it
Is longer acting
Is derived from human kidney
Is cheap
Activates plasminogen bound to tibrin
Which one of the following drugs provides hemodynamic stability and prolongs survival in congestive heart failure?
Lisinopril
Forosemide
Digoxin
Milrinone
Following drugs EXCEPT one are effective on topical application in the treatment of wide angle glaucoma
Betaxolol
Dipivefrin
Latanoprost
Acetazolamide
All of the following drugs cause hyperprolactenemia EXCEPT
Methyldopa
Chlorpromazine
Bromocriptine
Motocolopramide
Red man syndrome occurs with
Clindamycin
Teicoplanin
Vancomycin
Polymyxin
Aspirin prolongs bleeding by inhibiting the synthesis of which of the following?
Adenosine receptors
Cyclic AMP
Prostacycline
Thromboxane
The non sedative antihistamines are all EXCEPT one
Fexofenadine
Destoratidine
Levocetrizine
Cinnarizine
The drug that is NOT useful in congestive heart failure is
Adrenaline
Digoxin
Hydrochlorothiazide
Enalapril
Tegaserod is a newer
Antiemetic
Laxative
Anxiolytic
Antidiarrhoeal
The classic karyotype of klinefelter syndrome is
47 XXY
45 XO
48 XXXY
45 XY/47 XXY
All the following characteristics are true of Liposarcoma EXCEPT that is
Is commonly found in the retroperitoneum
Frequently gives rise to embolization in lymphatics
Is the most common soft tissue sarcoma
Arises very rarely in subcutaneous tissue
Which of the following forms of pneumoconiosis is associated with an increased susceptibility to tuberculosis?
Asbestosis
Silicosis
Coal workers pneumoconiosis
Stannosis
Apoptosis is associated with all the following features EXCEPT
Cell shrinkage
Intact cellular contents
Inflammation
Nucleosome size fragmentation of nucleus
Hemoglobin H disease is caused by deletion of
A single  globin gene
Two  globin genes
Three  globin genes
All 4  globin genes
Elevated levels of alkaline phosphitase are typical findings in each of the following conditions EXCEPT
Cirrhesis
Hepatitis
Polycythemia vera
Myocardial infarction
Mallory bodies are composed of
Fat droplets
Mitochondria
Lysosomal enzymes
Intermediate filaments
Chronic granulomatous disease is
Associated with formation of multiple granulomas
A benign neoplastic process
A parasitle disease
A leakocyte function defect
The sub type of Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by L and H cells
Nodular sclerosis
Mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte depletion
Lymphocyte predominance
A chromosomal aberration that results in a disturbance in the normal gene balance is termed
Nondisjunction
Cuploidy
Aneuploidy
Breakage
Artitus Reaction is an example for which type of hypersensitivity ?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
The immunoglobolin which exhibits ‘homocytotropism’ is
Ig A
Ig E
Ig G
Ig M
Red infarcts occur in
Kidney
Lung
Spleen
Heart
Heart-Lung machines are sterilized by
Glutaraldehyde
Ethylene oxide
Carbolic acid
Aqueous solution of iodine
Pontaic fever is caused by
Borrelia recurrentis
Spirillium minus
Bortonella haselle
Legionella pneumophila
“smudge cells” in the peripheral smear are characteristic of
Chronic myclegenous leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
The tick-borne haemorrhagic fever found in karnataka state is
Japanese encephalitis
Kyasanor Forest Disease
pidemic nephrosonephritis
Lassa fever
‘Urease breath test’ is useful in diagnosis of infection with which bacterium ?
Listeria monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Campylobater jejuni
Helicobactor pylori
Spherule is a feature of which of the following fungus
Blastomyces
Coccidiodes
Histoplasma
Paracoccidiodes
CD4 Lymphocytes (helper cells) recognize
HLA class I antigens
HLA class II antigens
HLA class III antigens
None of the above
Tram-line bruises are caused due to injuties inflected by
Chemical iriitants
Electrical burns
Iron rod
Radiation ourns
All are grievous hurt EXCEPT
Tooth break
Avulsion of nail
Facial burn
Emasculation
Which of the following poisons will cause yellowish discoloration of the skin/tissue ?
Carbolic acid
Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
Sulphuric acid
Lanugo hair is seen in the baby by the end of
Third month
Fourth month
Fifth month
Sixth month
Which of the following is NOT a defense against medical negligence ?
No Duty owed
Therapeutic misadventure
Error of judgement
Res Ipsa Loquitor
Following is the part of “Senrinel Surveillance” EXCEPT
Method for identifying the missing cases
Supplementing the notified cases
To estimate the disease prevalence in total population
To estimate the fatality of the disease
Only certificate of vaccination required for international travel is
Hepatitis B
BCG
Tetanus
Yellow fever
The minimum recommended level of residual chlorine in the drinking water is for one hour
0.25 mg/L
0.5 mg/L
1.0 mg/L
2.0 mg/L
The ability of an infectious agent to invade and multiply in a host is called
Pathogenicity
Infectivity
Virulence
Communicabitily
Which of the following statement about “reservoir” of an infection is NOT correct
Reservoir can transmit infection to a susceptible host
“Reservoir” and “Source” of infection are synonymous
Non-living thing can be Reservoir
Reservoir can be an animal
Which of the following is the suggested norm for nurses in Indian population?
1 per 1000
1 per 2000
1 per 3000
1 per 5000
The usefulness for “Case Fatality Rate” is very limited in
Sub-acute illness
Acute illness
Chronic illness
All of the above
The gap in time between the onset of the primary case and the secondary case is called
Serial interval
Generation time
Incubation period
Communicable period
Which of the following statement about “Incubation Period” (IP) is NOT correct ?
It is the time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of the first sign or symptom
During IP, the infectious agent undergoes multiplication in the host
The factors such as infective dose of pathogens and portal of entry determines IP
Infectious disease are not communicable during IP
Following are the waste types not to be incinerated EXCEPT
Pressurized gas containers
Reactive chemical waste
Halogenated plastics
Content of combustible matter above 50 %
The mechanical system in which fresh air is blown in to the room by centrifugal fans so as to create positive pressure and displace the vitiated air is lermed as
Balanced ventilation
Air conditioning
Exhaust ventilation
Plenum ventilation
Which of the Hepatitis B virus serological marker indicates the first evidence of Hepatitis B infection?
Anti-HBs
Anti-HBc
HBcAg
HBsSg
Screening test has the following features EXCEPT
Done on apparently healthy individuals
It is less accurate
Test results are arbitary and final
It can be used as a basis for treatment
Pulse protein is deficient in which of the following Essential Amino Acid?
Lysine
Methionine
Threonine
Tryptophan
The following is true for ‘ Live Vaccines’ EXCEPT
Live vaccines engage certain tissues of the body
Live vaccines should not be administrated to a patient of Leukemia
Two live vaccines cannot be given simultaneously
With an exception, immunization is generally achieved with a single dose of live vaccine
The fertility indicator that gives the approx mate magnitude of “completed family size”
General Fertility Rate
General Marital Fertility Rate
Age-specific Fertility Rate
Total Fertility Rate
The following diseases are communicable during later part of incubation period EXCEPT
Measles
Whooping Cough
Hepatitis A
Typhoid
Following are the chemical agents, which causes occupational dermatitis by local irritation EXCEPT
Rubber
X-rays
Lime
Ether
An adult is considered to be overweight if he/she has the BMI
 18.5
 20.
 25
None of the above
All are major manifestations of rheumatic fever and neumatic heart disease EXCEPT
Carditis
Elevated antistreptolysin –O
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
A 26-year-old pregnant woman has been detected to have a diastolic murmur in mitral area. Echocardiography reveals mitral value ortlice to be 0.8 cm1. The cause of her murmer is
Mild mitral stenosis
Severe mitral stenosis
Funtional murmur
Transmitted murmur from the congential heart disease of the foetus
In Addison’s crisis the following is seen
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypertension
In osteomalacia which of the following biochemical feature is true ?
Elevated serum calcium level
Elevated serum phosphate level
Elevated serum alkaline phosphatise
Elevated 25-hydroxyvitamin D3
Egg shell calcification of the hilar nodes is seen in
Asbestosis
Berylliosis
Silicosis
Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
Which of the following is diagnostic of Cushing’s disease ?
Exaggerated ACTH lever in blood
Reduced ACTH level in blooe
Reduced ACTH level in blood and cortisol raise with stimulation with insulin
Exaggerated ACTH and cortisol supperssion during dose dexamethasone supperssion test
Progressive multi focal leucoencephalopathy is caused
Epstein-Barr Virus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Cytomegalo Virus
JC Papova Virus
The drug of choice in the treatment of tropical sprue is
Tetracycline
Prednisolone
Gliadin
Cyclosporine
All of the following conditions cause type I respiratory failure EXCEPT
Acute asthma
Plumonary embolism
Pneumonia
Brain stera lesion
Earliest abnormality of diabetic nephropathy is
Hyper filtration
Microalbuminuria
Hypertension
Proteinuria
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap ?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Aspirin poisoning
Lactic acidosis
Renal rutular acidosis
Which of the following is the right choice of treatment for porto systemic encephalopathy ?
Diuretics
High protein diet
Emergency porto systemic shnt surgery
Lactulose
The most common inherited cause of rental disease is
Alport’s syndrome
Polycystic kidney disease
Hypospadias
PUI obstruction
A 35-year-old man presents with chronic steatorrhoea, His symptoms improve with removal of wheat from diet. He also develops blistering skin lesions. The skin condition is likely to respong to which one of the following ?
Tetracycline
Dapsone
Isoniazid
Erythromycin
The majority of cases of community icquired pneumonia are due to infection with
Legionella pneuphilia
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Staphylococcus aureus
The following are recognized infectious causes of eosinophilia EXCEPT
Malaria
Ascaris lumbricoides
Filariasis
Strogyloidiosis
The antibodies that are seen in grave’s disease are
ANA
TSH receptor antibodies (TRAB)
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Anti T3 antibodies
Cirrhosis of liver with portal hypertension is a complication of all of the following EXCEPT
Wilson’s disease
Haemochromatosis
Gilbert’s syndrome
Hepatitis C
Ankylosing spondylitis may be associated with
Atrial fibrillation
Plumonary stenosis
Aortic incompetence
Mitral stenosis
Drug having very narrow tnerapeutic range is
Lithium
Sertaline
Roboxeline
Dothiepin
The first hormone secretion that is affected in a pituitary lesion is
FSH, LH
ACTH
TSH
GH
Haemolysis is most severe with plasmodium talciparum infection compared to other malarial parasites because of
Associated gram-negative bacteremia
Ability of the parasite to infect RBC’
Ability of the organism to infect selectively reticulocytes
Ability of the organism to escape the immune recognition by the immune system
Todd’s palsy can occur after episode of
Generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Partial motor seizures
Atonic seizures
Myoclonic seizures
All of the following are features of acute severe asthma EXCEPT
Respiratory rate  25
Heart rate  110
PEF  50% of normal or predicted
Temperature  102oF
The most common cause of chromic pancreatitis is
Gall stones
Mainutrition
Alcohol
Cystic fibrosis
A 65-year-old gentleman is having tremors, rig dity and reduce mobility. He is likely to be benefited by
Bromocriptine
Alpha Methyl Dopa
Reserpine
Acyclovir
Measurement of urine vanillyl Mandetlic Acid (VMA) can help in diognosis of
Carcinoid syndrome
Acute pancreatitis
Zollinger – Ellison syndrome
Phaeocbromocytoma
Which of the following is a feature of Disseminated intravascular Congulation (DIC) ?
Normal prothrombin time
Reduced plasma fibrinogen
Normal platelet count
Normal clothing time
Howell jolly bodies are seen in
Liver disease
Post splenectomy
Hemolysis
DIC
A patient has preserved light touch and absent pain and temperature over the left upper limb. This pattern of sensory loss is called
Stock and glove type
Segmental type
Dissociated type
Mononeuritic type
The antidote of choice in paracetamol poisoning is
Flamazenis
Sodium Bi-Carbonate
N-Acetylcysteine
Methylene Blue
Large tongue is common in
Turner syndrome
Treacher collins syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Congential syphilis
A child bodies towers of 2 cubes at the age of
12 months
15 months
22 months
24 months
The drug of choice in treatment of infantite spasms is
ACTH
Phenobarbitone
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
What is the calorie content of 100 ml of human breast milk ?
67 kcal
90 kcal
100 kcal
45 kcal
A normal baby is able to self spoon feed at the age of
18 months
12 months
9 months
6 months
Relapse in malaria is seen in
P. Malarie and P.ovale
P.vivax and P.malarie
P.talciparum and P.ovale
P.vivax and ovale and P.malaria
Megalencephaly is commonly seen in
Down syndrome
Tay sach’s disease
Turner syndrome
Intraurerine infection
The principal vector of dengue virus
Anopheles cuticifacies
Aedes aegypti
Anopheles stephensi
Culex morestus
Liver boipsy shown fatty change in
Marasmus
Marasmic kwashiorkor
Nutritional dwarfism
Kwashiorker
The term infantile polyarteritis nodesa was formerly used for
Good pastures disease
Henoch schonleie purpura
Kawasaki disease
Takayasu arteritis
The previously used term for dissociative (Conversion) disorder is
Somatisation
Hysteria
Malingering
Neurasthenia
Thoracic duct commences at which vertebral level –
L5
L3
T12
T4
True about phrenic nerve –
Supplies peritoneum under diaphragm
Formed by dorsal rami of C3, C4, C5
Is a pure motor nerve
All are true
True about tracheal bifurcation –
At lower border of T4
Tracheal ring has hoop-shaped process
Called Carina
All of the above
Extent of esophagus –
C2 -C6
C6-T10
T2-T10
CrT4
True about esophagus –
Lined by simple squamous epithelium
Lower one third contains only smooth muscles
Serosa is well defined
Muscularis mucosa is made up of longitudinal and circular layer
Which of following vein draining in right atrium without valve at orifice ?
SVC
IVC
Coronary sinus
All of the above
Eustachian valve is seen in –
Eustachian tube opening at nasopharyngeal end
Eustachian tube opening in tympanic cavity
IVC opening in right atrium
Coronary sinus opening in right atrium
Arch of aorta lies at what vertebral level –
T5
T4
T6
T2
Rib ossification center first appears in which rib -
1st
12th
6th
3rd
Ossification of ribs starts in –
8-10 weeks
20-22 weeks
30-32 weeks
Afterbirth
1st posterior intercostal artery is a branch of –
Aorta
Superior intercostal artery
Internal mammary artery
Bronchial artery
Which passes along with aorta through diaphragm-
Left gastric vein and thoracic duct
Thoracic duct and hemiazygos vein
Azygos vein and thoracic duct
Left vagus and thoracic duct
Right bronchial vein drains into –
Superior intercostal vein
Posterior intercostal vein
Azygous vein
Hemiazygous vein
Sorensess and pain in muscels after vigrous exercise is due to –
Hyperkalemia
Lactic acidosis
Hyperthermia
Hyponatremia
Fast muscle fibers are-
Red
Oxidative
Tonic
Glycolytic
Type 1 musle fibers are slow due to-
Law glycolytic activity
Low oxidative activity
Small fiber length
Low myosine ATPase activity
Band not covered by actin filament is?
Hband
I band
M band
Z band
Hormone responsible for BP regulation after a fall due to blood loss.
ADH
ANP
Epinephrine
Aldosterone
Sodium channels are maximum in which part of neuron –
Soma
Axon hillock
Dendrites
Axon
Dorsal root ganglion contains –
Dendrides of motor neuron
Dendrides of sensory neuron
Body of motor neuron
Body of sensory neuron
Visual processing center is located in –
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
EEG rhythm in full awake and alert state-
Alpha
Beta
Theta
Delta
Bilateral damage to lateral hypothalamus causes-
Hyperthermia
Hypothermia
Anorexia
Increased sexuality
Unconscious proprioception is carried by –
Dorsal column
Spinofhalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract
Reticulospinal tract
Which of the following is a chemoreceptor-
Osmoreceptors
Rods & cones
Hair cells
Merkel's disc
Papez circuit is formed by which thalamic nucleus-
Anterior
Medial geniculate
Lateral geniculate
Posterior
NREM sleep occupies what percentage of total sleep-
20%
40%
50%
65%
In a sleep of 8 hours, NREM sleep occupies-
1-1.5 hrs
2-2.5 hrs
4-4.5 hrs
5 - 5.5 hrs
Which of the foUowing enzyme is not a protein –
Carboxypeptidase
Amylase
Ribozyme
DNAase
Alcohol dehydrogenase is a/an –
Transferase
Hydrolase
Ligase
Oxidoreductase
Regan enzyme is an isoenzyme of –
LDH
Creatinine kinase
Acid phosphatase
Alkaline phosphatase
Carbonic anhydrase is which type of enzyme –
Coenzyme
Metalloenzyme
Serine protease
Endopeptidase
Which of the foUowing is functional plasma enzyme-
Lipoprotein lipase
LDH
CPK
Lipase
Maximum protein to lipid ratio is seen in –
Inner mitochondrial membrane
Outer mitochondrial membrane
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Myelin sheath membrane
Both lipid and protein contents are equal in membrane of which organelle-
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Myeline Sheath
Golgi apparatus
In ETC, cyanide inhibits –
Complex I
Cytochrome C oxidase
Complex IV
Complex III
FADH2 enters at which complex in ETC –
I
II
III
IV
Which of the foUowing is an example of uncoupler –
Thyroxine
2, 4 DNC
2,4DNP
All of the above
Glycogen phosphorylase requires –
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Pyridoxal phosphate
Citrate
FAD
Principal of using Robertson cooked meat broth –
Meat kills other bacteria
Meat is utilized by anaerobes
Content of meat extract utilize O2
All of the above
Example of selective medium is –
LJ medium
Blood agar
Selenite F broth
Chocolate agar
Inspissation is used for –
Sputum
Protein containing culture medium
Serum containing culture medium
Plasma sterilization
Fletcher's medium containing Rabbit serum is used for –
Streptococcus
Bacillus anthracis
Leptospira
Borrelia
Culture medium used for leptospira for laboratory diagnosis –
Skirrows medium
EMJH medium
BYCEagar
Pike's medium
O-antigen of gram negative bacteria is a part of –
Cell wall
Exotoxin
Lipopolysaccharide
Cytoplasmic membrane
Action of lysozymes on gram negative bacteria –
Faster than gram positive bacteria
Has no action
Depends on integrity of outer membrane.
Cause resistance to antibiotic
High level disinfectant are used for –
Stethoscopes
Electronic thermometers
Bronchoscopes
Surgical instruments
Capule of Bacillus anthracis is formed of –
Polysaccharide
Lipopolysaccharide
Polypeptide
Long chain fatty acids
Cell wall of bacillus anthracis is composed of –
Peptidoglycan
Polysaccharide
Lipopolysaccharide
Polypeptide
Throat swab is kept in –
Plastic jar
Test tube
Petridish
None
Spore forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli –
Bacillus Anthracis
Clostridia
Corynebacterium
Peptostreptococcus
Example of physiological atrophy is –
Senile atrophy
Disuse atrophy
Post pregnancy uterine atrophy
All of the above
True about metaplasia is-
Loss of polarity
Nucleus is smaller in size
It is a reversible change
Immature cells
Lipofuscin is associated with-
Brown atrophy
White atrophy
Red atrophy
Black atrophy
What is the common change in cell death associated with both apoptosis and necrosis ?
Cell shrinkage
Bleb formation
Chromatin condensation
Presence of inflammation
Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in –
Diabetes
Rheumatoid arthritis
Pancreatitis
Alzheimer's disease
Which is pleuripotent stem cell ?
Embryonic stem cell
Tissue stem cell
Adult stem cell
Hematopoietic stem cell
Which Vitamin deficiency results in poor wound healing?
K
C
D
E
Which of the following is not a cachetic gene?
APEH
MC4R
Smad7
Smad 3
Edema is due to –
Increased capillary osmotic pressure
Decreased hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
Both of the above
Decreased lymph flow
All of the following are included in pathogenesis of edema except ?
Decreased hydrostatic pressure of capillaries
Decreased plasma osmotic pressure of capillaries
lymphatic obstruction
Increased vascular permeability
Mechanism of action of bradykinin is –
Vasoconstriction
Bronchodilatation
Increased Vascular permeability
All of the above
In acute inflammation, excessive fluid seepage occurs due to increased permeability of ?
Venules
Capillaries
Arterioles
Arterioles and capillaries
Vasodilatation secondary to trauma is mediated by –
Histamine
IL-2
TGF-p
FGF
Wisdom tooth erupts at which age –
6-8 years
10-12 years
12-15 years
17-20 years
All of the following are milestones at 7 months except-
Building a tower of 2 cubes
Stranger anxiety
Babbling
Resistance on toy being pulled from hand
Klinefelter syndrome- All of the following are features except –
Microorchidism
Hypogonadism
Short 4th metacarpal
Eunuchoid features
A child has idiopathic hypercalciuria. It is diagnosed by-
Urinary calcium> 4mg/kg/day
Urinary calcium> 6mg/kg/day
Urinary calcium> 8mg/kg/day
Urinary calcium> lOmg/kg/day
Umbilical cord becomes black in –
2-3 days
5-7 days,
7-10 days
10-14 days
The umbilical cord is shed off by –
2-4 days
1-2 weeks
2-4 weeks
1-2 months
After 3 days of birth, the base of umbilical cord is red and swollen. It indicates –
Normal phenomenon
CHF
Infection
None of the above
Breast milk at room temperature stored for-
4hrs
8hrs
12hrs
24hrs
All of the following are true about transient tachypnea of newborn except –
It is a self limiting disease
It may occur after Caeserean section
It usually takes 1 month to recover
It is due to slow absorption of fetal lung fluid
Where is the narrowest portion of infant airway?
Below the glottis at the level of the cricoids
Glottis
Supraglottic area
At the level of thyroid cartilage
The maximum urinary concentration capacity in full term neonates is –
> 1000 mOsm/litre
350 - 450 mOsm/litre
900 - 1000 mOsm/litre
600 - 700 mOsm/litre
Tripod fracture is –
Displaced fracture of calcaneum
Zygomatiomaxillary fracture
Sphenoid Wing Fracture
Coronal Shear pilon Fracture
What is a floating knee –
Damage to both anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
Condition of knee due to tear in medial and lateral collateral ligaments
Femoral shaft fracture with proximal tibia metaphyseal fracture
Advanced tuberculosis of knee joint
The tensile strength of a bone is due to –
Strands of collagen
Hydroxyapatite crystals
Periosteum
Metaphysis
Undertaker's fracture is –
Traumatic spondylolisthesis of Cl over C2
Spondylolisthesis of lower cervical spine with tearing of C6 C7 intervertebral disc
Burst fracture of C3
Spinous process fractures of lower cervical vertebrae
What is the normal orientation of humeral head –
Retroversion of 80 degrees
Retroversion of 30 degrees
Anteversion of 15 degrees
Anteversion of 50 degrees
Preferred treatment of cubitus varus is –
Medial closing wedge osteotomy
Lateral closing wedge osteotomy
Medial opening wedge osteotomy
Lateral opening wedge osteotomy
Which of the following is true about anterior shoulder dislocation –
It is most common type of shoulder dislocation
It is most commonly subclavicular
Patient keeps his arm in saluting position
Injury to brachial plexus may occur
True regarding mallet finger is which of the following-
Avulsion of tendon at the base of the middle phalanx
Avulsion of extensor tendon at the base of the distal phalanx
Fracture of distal phalanx
Fracture of the proximal phalanx
In a patient with history of trauma and X-ray showing fracture of proximal part of medial bone of forearm with dislocation. The muscles which may get paralysed-
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Adductor pollicis
Extensor pollicis longus
Opponens pollicis
All of the following are displacements of Colle's fracture except –
Dorsal tilt
Impaction
Supination
Medial displacement
All are true about Diabetes inslpidus except?
Low urine osmolality
Dilutional Hyponatremia
Water deprivation test is used for diagnosis
Polyuria
All are correct about SIADH except:
Normal KFT
Low uric acid
Relative hypernatremia
Normal BP with gain of water
Chronic hemodialysis in ESRD patient is done?
Once per week
Twice per week
Thrice per week
Daily
CSF is absorbed by –
Choroid plexus
Sub-arachnoid granulations
Dura matter
Pia matter
Which of the following is not a test for integrity of 9th and 10th nerve –
Position of uvula
Palate symmetry
Taste
tongue protusion
Cranial Nerve 8 palsy causes all EXCEPT:
Gag reflex
Vertigo
Motion sickness
Tinnitus
Pure word blindness occurs due to lesion in –
Anterior cerebral artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Spinal artery
A patient is unable to solve mathematical calculations, which part of his brain is damaged?
Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobs
Incorrect about dementia pugilistica –
Seen in boxers
Difficulty in gait
Decreased cognition
Nystagmus
Duret haemorrhage is –
Traumatic brain haemorrhage in contre-coup injury
Adrenal haemorrhage in water house friderichsen
Brain hemorrhage due to tear of basiliar artery branches
Petechial hemorrhages in fat embolism
The submerged part of cerebral cortex is –
Insula
Broadman area
Corpus collosum
Pirform sulcus
Two point discrimination test exhibits maximum sensitivity in –
Shin
Toes
Finger pads
Soles
Hemiballismus is due to lesion in –
Ipisilateral caudate nucleus
Contralateral sub-thalamic lesion
Contralateral putamen
Ipsilateral sub-thalamic lesion
Candle wax dripping sign is seen in –
Sarcoidosis
SLE
HIV
Rheumatoid arthritis
Transtentorial herniation causes all except –
Neck stiffness
Post cerebral artery infarct
Contralateral hemeiparesis
3rd Nerve palsy with contralateral pupillary dilatation
Which of the following is most likely to be affected in an anuerysm of posterior cerebral artery [PCA]?
Hypophysis cerebri
Trochlear nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Optic nerve
All of the following criteria are used for assessing severity of acute pancreatitis except-
Ranson criteria
APACHE – II
CT index
ROME Criteria
The most common cause of Mediastinitis is –
Tracheal rupture
Esophageal rupture
Drugs
Idiopathic
Secretory diarrhea is caused by all except –
Medullary thyroid tumor
Carcinoid tumor
Somatostinoma
Glucagonoma
Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease –
Aminotransaminase
Alkaline phosphatase
Bilirubin
Albumin
Obesity is associated with decreased risk of –
Hypertension
Hyperuricemia
Osteoporosis
Heart disease
The triad originally described by Zollinger Ellison syndrome is characterized by –
Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, non beta cell tumour
Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, beta cell tumour
Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, non beta cell tumour
------------------
Celiac sprue diagnosed by –
CT scan
Unequivocal response to gluten restriction
Finding of organism
Improveent on dapsome treatment
ROME III criteria for Irritable bowel syndrome AE –
Improvement with defection
Rectal bleeding
Onset associated with change in frequency of stool
Onset associated with change in form of stool
All of following are seen in GH deficiency except –
Hyperglycemia
Stunting
Delayed bone age
High pitched voice
In prolactinoma most common symptom other than galactorrhea is –
Bitemporal hemianopia
Amennorhea
Thyroid dysfunction
Headache
True about obesity –
Seen mostly in females
Prevalence decrease upto 40 years of age
No genetic predisposition
Smoking is a risk factor
Initial ECG change in Hyperkalemia is –
Tall tented T waves
PR prolongation
qRs widening
ST segment depression
ECG finding of Hyperkalemia –
T wave inversion
ST depression
P pulmonale
Wide QRS complex
Female patient with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and joint pain. ACE levels are elevated. Diagnosis is –
Sarcoidosis
Silicosis
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
Which of the following regarding small vessel disease [SVD], cerebral amyloid angiopathy [CAA] and Alzheimer's disease [AD] is not true?
SVD is related to CAA
SVD is not correlated to AD
SVD is related to AD
CAA is associated with AD
Most effective treatment of frostbite on lower extremities is –
Rewarming with friction and/or massage
Rewarming with blankets
Rewarming with immersion in warm water
Rewarming with encouragement of walking on warm surfaces
Kleine-levin syndrome is associated with all of the following except –
Drowsiness
Hypersomnolence
Hypersensitivity to noise and light
Commonly occurs after the age of 30 years
Maffucci syndrome characterized by A/E –
Enchondromas
Cavernous hemangioma
Chondrosarcoma
Hamartomas
Chronic Fatigue Syndrome is characterized by all except-
New onset fatigue
Not improved by rest
Major psychiatric disorder associate
Fatique last for more than 6 moather
Castleman's disease all are true except –
Lymphoproliferative disorder
Malignant disorder
Associated with HIV, HHV
Rituximab is used in treatment
According to revised guidelines of Americal heart association, which of the following drugs is not recommended in Cardiac arrest –
Adrenaline
Atropine
Amiodarone
Vasopressin
Incorrect about dementia pugilistica –
Seen in boxers
Difficulty in gait
Decreased cognition
Nystagmus
Obstructive sleep apnoea may result in all of the following except –
Systemic hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension
Cardiac arrhythmia
Impotence
What are nitrergic neurous ?
Post ganglionic neurons releasing nitric oxide
1st order neurons releasing nitric oxide
Post ganglionic neurons releasing substance P.
1st order neurons releasing calcitonin Gene related peptide
Aspergillosis can present with all except –
Lung cavity
Ear infection
Normal component in sputum
Rhinocerebral involvement
A 40 year old woman with has the following histopathology of the cervix . Next step of management
colposcopy
cyrotherapy
conisation
hysterectomy
Radiograph shown in Figure is to be done in a new born at ?
Immediately
After 2 hours
After 4 hours
After 6 hours
The air contrast enema , Ultrasound shown in Figure is caused by?
Subserosal Lipoma
Submucosal Lipoma
Subfacial Lipoma
Intermuscular Lipoma
Clinical feature shown in Figure in newborn is due to
entrapment of melanocytes in the lower half to two-thirds of the dermis
dermis melanocytosis
dermis to epidermis melanocytosis
Low dermis melanocytosis
X-ray shown in Figure is diagnostic of ?
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
Sarcoidosis
Silicosis
Lobar Pneumonia
patient shown in figure in Emergency department has BP 90/60 mmhg , which of the following is induction agent of choice ?
thiopentone
halothane
ketamine
propofol
Patient in labour whose 2D Echo is shown in Figure , wants analgesia for normal delivery Which form of anesthesia is to be used for her?
inhalational anesthesia
spinal anesthesia
epidural anesthesia
opioids
A 12 years old female is admitted as a patient of mass in right ovary 4x5 cm in size. with intact capsule. Histopathology is shown in Figure .Best treatment will be :
Ovarian cystectomy
Oophorectomy on the involved side.
Bilateral oophorectomy
Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingopherectomy
The following histopathologic appearance in ovarian tumor is seen in -
Dysgerminoma
Theca cell tumour
Granulosa cell tumour
Polyembryoma
A diabetic female at 40 wks of gestation delivered a baby by elective cesarean section. Soon after birth the baby developed respiratory distress. The diagnosis is -
Transient tachypnea of the new born
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Tracheo oesophageal fistula
Hyaline membrane disease
Endometrial cancer involving >50% of myornetrium . It’s extent of Spread is shown as labelled A in Figure below . Peritoneal lavage was positive staged as
Ilia
Illb
IIIcl
IIIc2
The commonest organism causing the following condition is:
Streptococcus pyogenses
Streptococcus faecalis
Streptococcus viridans
Microraerophilic streptococci.
The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was cultured on a 5% sheep blood agar. The culture showed the presence of the colonies shown in Figure next day. The further processing of this organism is most likely to yield.
Gram positive cocci in short chains, catalase negative and bile resistant
Gram positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble
Gram positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive and coagulase positive
Gram negative coccobacilli catalase positive and oxidase positive
0
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